In this post: What was this cup that Jesus asked to be able to bypass? You said: Partaking of the cup was becoming what he resisted all through his life - becoming sin. It is what the writer of hebrews describes as becoming a "contradiction of sinners against himself" (Heb. 12:3). He was "made to be sin" that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him. The baptism he was baptized with is the suffering in becoming sin for us. In another post: What = Baptist You said [along with comments not about baptism] ...They administer the SAME baptism Christ submitted to (Mt. 3:15-17) and administered through his disciples (Jn. 4:1-2) which was the only "one baptism" (Eph. 4:5) he possibly could have commissioned in Matthew 28:19. No other baptism is according to the counsel of God (Lk. 7:29-30).... I am sure there is an explanation for this apparent contradiction, but my Question to you is; Was the 'one' baptism of Jesus John the baptists' baptism, or the 'cup' of suffering in becoming sin? It is quite possible that I have overlooked something in this; therefore, my question.