Sorry for restarting a topic that looks like it was just discussed, but something was said that I would like further comment on. Askjo said that the NIV added the word "star" to Isaiah 14:12 because the word "star" is not in the Hebrew. I am wondering if the KJV then also added the word "star" in 2 Pet 1:19, because "star" is not in the Greek in that verse. The Greek word in that verse is "phosphorus", which as I understand it, is the same word in all Greek Bibles in Isaiah 14:12. How can one who defends the KJV as inerrant say the NIV is wrong for using "star" like this when the KJV does the exact same thing?