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Featured An Examination & Critique of The NEW KING JAMES VERSION.

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Alan Gross, Feb 3, 2024.

  1. Alan Gross

    Alan Gross Well-Known Member

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    If that were true, the NKJV
    would not agree word-for-word with
    The New World Translation,
    but would agree with The Source Version of their "genuine revision".

    Specifically, then how do specifically explain that,
    "All of The Sister-Translations (below) of the Jehovah's Witness'
    New World Translation have essentially the exact same wording
    for Matthew 28:19, as The New World Translation,
    including The New King James Version,

    while, continueing to contend for "the Faith once delivered to the saints",
    and holding to the
    Twin Bible Doctrines of "The Divine Inspiration"

    and "Providential Preservation of the Scriptures", all of the previous
    English Bible versions over the last 642 years, have essentially the exact same wording for Matthew 28:19, as The King James Version?*

    How do you explain that?

    *
    (although their wording is different from The New World Translation
    and from those versions shown above that have departed from the Faith,
    in having adopted "The Arm of Flesh", as their Translation Philosophy?)


    What's going on there? Give me specific verifiable specifics
    concerning that specific question, in your answer, to prove what you say.
     
  2. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Your opinion is incorrect, and you jump to a wrong conclusion. Furthermore, you do not prove your biased opinion to be true, and you do not apply your assertion consistently and justly. Are you trying to use the guilty-by-association fallacy?

    Your assertion would like be claiming that the KJV is not a revision of the Bishops' Bible because there are many places where it does not agree word-for-word with it. The first rule for the making of the KJV stated: “The ordinary Bible read in the church, commonly called the Bishops’ Bible, to be followed, and as little altered as the original will permit.” The truth remains that the KJV is a revision of the Bishops' Bible regardless of their many differences.

    Would you suggest that the fact that the KJV would agree word-for-word in places with the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament that it means that the KJV is based on an edition of the Latin Vulgate of Jerome in those places?

    The KJV would likely agree word-for-word in many places with the New World Translation.
     
  3. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    It remains the truth that the NKJV is a genuine revision of the KJV regardless of your denial of the truth. Why do you question and reject the truth?

    No valid, compelling, firsthand evidence has been presented that demonstrates that the NKJV translators consulted or made any use of The New World Translation in their making of the NKJV.

    Henry Virkler observed: “Correlation does not prove causation” (A Christian’s Guide to Critical Thinking, p. 144).

    Your stated human reasoning is incorrect.

    On the other hand, there is firsthand direct evidence from one of the KJV translators that the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament was consulted and used in the making of the KJV.
     
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  4. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Do you ignore or avoid the fact that the KJV itself translated the same Greek word translated "teach" in Matthew 28:19 as "disciple" in Matthew 27:57? Why do I need to explain an accurate translation that essentially agrees with how the KJV translated the Greek word in another verse?

    Your assertion is not true since all the previous English Bible versions over the last 642 years do not have essentially the exact same wording for Matthew 28:19 as the KJV.

    The 1657 English Bible translation of the 1637 Dutch Bible translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    Go ye therefore, instruct all the nations [Or make disciples among all nations, as this word is also taken] baptizing the same, in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy Ghost

    John Wesley's New Testament [one edition was first printed in 1755] translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    Go ye and disciple all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost

    The 1842 revision of the KJV by Baptists translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    Go therefore and disciple all the nations, immersing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.

    The 1862 American Bible Union New Testament translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    Go therefore, and disciple all the nations, immersing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.

    The 1862 Young's Literal Translation that you suggest that you accept translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    having gone, then, disciple all the nations, (baptizing them--to the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.

    The 1902 Emphasized Bible by Joseph Bryant Rotherham [New Testament first printed in 1872] translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    Go ye therefore and disciple all the nations, immersing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit

    The 1912 Holy Bible --An Improved Edition printed by the American Baptist Publication Society translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    Go therefore and disciple all the nations, baptizing (immersing) them into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit

    The Literal Translation in The Interlinear Bible translated Matthew 28:19 as follows:
    Going, then, disciple all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
     
    #44 Logos1560, Feb 27, 2024
    Last edited: Feb 27, 2024
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