"The words of Lord are pure." Pure here according to Wesley means: Without the least mixture of falsehood; and therefore shall infallibly be fulfilled. I believe pure means perfect and without error. My question is this. If no translation is perfect, and no Greek text is perfect (which many on this site claim) Than doesn't it reason to stand that none of us have access to God's word, because imperfection is not pure? I have a hard time when people claim to believe in the preservation of God's pure words, but cannot direct me to where I can access these pure words. I do not want your attacks on the King James bible, just respond to the above statements and questions.