This is someone I met in DT Denver the other week and we started to chat. He is a Semi-Pelagianist and I do not believe his version is heresy, but nothing but pure false doctrine like Hyper Dispensationalism, Mid Acts Dispensationalism, King James Version Onlyism, etc..). I have not yet responded to his email, so how should I respond for those of you more familiar with his belief system? ---- Hello John, Where does Romans 5:12 teach the doctrine of "original sin" or "inherited evil"? (Augustine used these expressions as synonymous). It was from the Latin Vulgate not the Greek New Testament that he argued that we all existed in Adam, and therefore sinned together with him. According to Greek usage, "eph ho" does not mean, "in whom" as the Latin Vulgate states but "because" or "for that" (KJV). The whole teaching of "original sin" or "inherited evil" is based on an erroneous Latin translation of Romans 5:12. This is the same translation that has penance instead of repentance. When Moses Stuart was Professor of Sacred Literature in the Theological Seminary at Andover, he wrote two articles in the American Biblical Repository entitled, "What is sin?" Stuart points out in Article One, April, 1839, :"The very names of sin, in Hebrew and Greek, are all of an active nature...The very verbs which express the idea of sinning are so essentially active, that they have not even a passive voice; I mean there is no passive form among them, when they convey the meaning to sin." When a verb in the Greek New Testament is in the active voice the subject is doing the action. The passive voice is used when the subject is being acted upon. Moses Stuart didn't see two kinds of sin taught in Scripture: original (imputed or inherent) and actual (personal or voluntary). Neither do I. I don't see how it's even possible for sin to be a part of our physiological nature, and therefore something that exists antecedent to all thought, knowledge, action, or voluntary exercises of the mind. I believe Romans 5:12-19 teaches that Adam's offense has been the occasion not cause of all men becoming sinners. I also believe that human nature has been affected by the fall (I am semi-Pelagian). But I don't see in these verses that sin is any thing other than a voluntary act of the will. Romans 9:11 states, "(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil..." In the Greek text, "being born" is an aorist passive participle masculine genitive plural. "Having done" is an aorist active participle masculine genitive plural. The Greek text is clearly distinguishing the act of being born (passive voice) which is a physical act not involving our will and doing good or evil (active voice) which is a moral act involving our will. I enjoyed listening to your preaching the Gospel as a Reformed Christian. Especially what you said about the fruit of repentance. I have actually heard a Reformed Preacher say, "If you are one of the elect, Christ died for you." This limits the Atonement of Christ to the elect only (those unconditionally chosen for salvation and irresistibly called). This is the very thing I was taking issue with in our discussion last Saturday. Best regards,Gary. --- He heard this open air message The Burning Hell The words he mentions I have preached before, but have learned from my mistakes and did not repeat them in the message above, however I do believe them.