I don't think anybody here will argue with the fact that the apocrypha is not part of the Bible canon. My question is, how accurate is the apocrypha historically? I assume the Macabees are fairly close to reality since they seem to match other sources of history such as Josephus (although his accuracy has been questioned). How about the other books? Since the Apocrypha was Pre-New Testament, I assume it was written in Hebrew (except for its translation in the Septuagint). I assume that none of it was Aramiac, correct?