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Are SBC Ministers required to believe in the Immaculate Conception of Christ?

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by Ben W, Aug 15, 2005.

  1. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    What suspense? You're most likely going to cite Exodus 20:5 like most, but that verse doesn't say that anything is passed to the children in the sense that most folks mean when they comment on the supposed necessity for the Virgin Birth, and "fathers" simply means ancestors.

    If not Exodus 20:5, then you'll cite one or more verses from Romans 5 or some other that says simply we all sinned in Adam. That's true, but to think of sin passing like genetic traits is the wrong idea.

    The Virgin Birth was a sign, not necessity.

    Anyway, more later. I'm out of time! [​IMG]
     
  2. Artimaeus

    Artimaeus Active Member

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    I understand that the SBC does not dictate to the local church but, does the local church get to dictate to the SBC that they can be a member of the SBC regardless of what the local churches believes?

    My local church was SBC from 1925 till about 1962 when they decided to "go independent". We did not change any doctrine or disagree with anything in the statement of belief. We still feel a strong affection for SBC beliefs so, this is not a slam against the SBC.

    The difference is that they are not "claiming" to be SBC, they ARE SBC. The SBC is a big outfit and it is not possible for them to be aware of every detail of every church, I understand that, but, once it becomes known that a pastor is teaching that the virgin birth is NOT true and they continue to acknowledge that that church is a member in good standing then it is de facto NOT a deal breaker and IS acceptable with the SBC.
     
  3. Jeffrey H

    Jeffrey H New Member

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    What does the sign represent or signify? It's only a "sign" and nothing more?
     
  4. TexasSky

    TexasSky Guest

    Quoted: The Virgin Birth was not of necessity, it was for a sign.

    I believe it was a necessity.

    Even during His time as a man on earth, people looked to Christ and said, "Isn't He the Carpentar's son." The lineage of Christ is unquestionable. There is no "earthly" Father.

    Beyond that - prophecy dictated that the Messiah would be born of God, not man.
     
  5. Bro Tony

    Bro Tony New Member

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    What nonsense. Of course it was necessary, whether you say it was only for a sign or for some other reason. It was necessary because it was part of God's plan--period. That people debate the reason for the virgin birth, and that they come up with different reasons for it, does not change the fact the it was necessary.

    This whole thread shows that clearly there can be a person claiming to be Baptist (Southern or otherwise) and be as lost as a goose in high grass.

    GB- I understand your point about following Jesus. But if you are following the wrong Jesus he will lead you to hell. I would say it is not an either/or proposition. We need to have the right Jesus (the One who fulfills all biblical requirements) and we need to follow Him.

    Bro Tony
     
  6. GODzThunder

    GODzThunder New Member

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    I am a little suprised that (unless I missed it) nobody corrected the statement that SBC ministers are to believe in the immaculate conception of Christ. The immaculate conception is a doctrine that does not primarily focus on Jesus but teaches that Mary was born without sin and was perfect so that she could give birth to Jesus. So in short we are not required to believe in the immaculate conception and should not as it is unbiblical, we believe in the Virgin Birth of Christ as that is plainly taught in the Bible, unless you have a mistranslation (I am not KJ only but this is one reason why I am leary of some other Bibles).
     
  7. USN2Pulpit

    USN2Pulpit New Member

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    GT, that's the same thing I thought. Many people have a misunderstanding of what "immaculate conception" refers to.
     
  8. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    Not exactly, GODzThunder. You're referring to the immaculate conception of Mary, a doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church, but not a doctrine of scripture. The immaculate conception of Jesus is indeed a doctrine of scripture.

    The RCC doctrine stems froom the Jewish tradition that heritage is passed via the maternal line. In this same manner, it was believed that original sin was passed in like manner. It was deduced that if Mary was born with original sin, then Jesus would have received original sin from his mother upon conception. Hence, RCC theosiphers believed that Mary must have been concieved without original sin to qualify her as being fit to bear the Savior. Today, we no longer hold to original sin being a physical trait, but instead a spiritual trait, so there is no need for adhering to this belief.

    The term "immaculate conception", when used by itself, is typically presumed to refer to the marian doctrine of the RCC. However, to refer to the immaculate conception of Christ as the concept of Christ being born without original sin is technically correct.
     
  9. USN2Pulpit

    USN2Pulpit New Member

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  10. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    If you folks had been paying attention, you would have seen that I said the virgin birth was not a necessity for the sinlessness of Christ. That it was necessary because it was part of God's plan to be the "seed of the woman" is unquestionable. But to think that God was helpless and could find no other way to bring His Son into the world and was constrained by necessity to adopt this method is, in my opinion, highly presumptuous.
     
  11. TexasSky

    TexasSky Guest

    Aaron,

    With all due respect, that is not what you said in the original post. You wrote The Virgin Birth was not of necessity, it was for a sign. God just as easily could have created a body for Christ in "the family way" (so to speak) as to make a body for Him from a virgin.
     
  12. Circuitrider

    Circuitrider <img src=/circuitrider2.JPG>
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    I may have misunderstood this statement, but I would disagree with it as it stands "...the virgin birth is nowhere explicitly prophesied--we only have the double prophecy about a young woman bearing a child."

    Isaiah 7:14 makes a clear statement about the virgin birth. "Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son...." The RSV 1940/50s edition changed this word or at least footnoted it as possibly meaning "young woman" rather than "virgin." However if we interpret scripture with scripture we must go to Matthew 1 where this verse is quoted in the following way, "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son."

    While the OT Hebrew word might give the latitude of translation including either "virgin" or "young woman", the NT word quoting that passage gives the meaning as "virgin." Thus Isaiah's prophecy based upon principles of interpretation should be rightfully translated "virgin" and along with Matthew 1 is clearly a prediction of the virgin birth.

    Now as to the question about it being required for Southern Baptists, I don't have a clue. As a good independent fundament Baptist I do know that it is one of the fundamentals of the faith and therefore an essential belief for anyone involved in ministry.
     
  13. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    I don't think it's an issue of whether Mary had to be or did not have to be a virgin so much as what scripture says:

    If one denies the virgin birth, then one is not believing the Bible.
     
  14. Petrel

    Petrel New Member

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    While I agree it is a prophecy of Jesus' birth, I don't think that it ought to be translated "virgin" in the Old Testament because it was a double prophecy. At that time Jerusalem was under siege, and Isaiah was sent to tell King Ahaz that it would not be overpowered and King Rezim and King Pekah, and both would be overthrown in the near future.

    God said that a sign to confirm that this would happen would be a child born to a young woman. Before the child was old enough to discern right from wrong the two kings would be destroyed.

    If we take this prophecy as only applying to Jesus' birth, it makes no sense. Why would God tell Ahaz he would send a sign of the kings' impending destruction and then send the sign almost a millenia after they'd all died?

    Since obviously the child born at that time could not be born of a virgin (unless you think there were two virgin births!), I don't think the translation of "virgin" is correct in the Old Testament context.
     
  15. Bro Tony

    Bro Tony New Member

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    No one here said God was helpless. Where are you coming from. No one here is being presumptuous either. No one here is saying God is constrained to any method. The Bible teaches the virgin birth----Period! For you or anyone else to offer a different way or the possibility of a different way is for you to presume that you know better than God. He chose the way and that settles it. If you choose not to believe it than you don't believe the Bible. If you deny the Bible than you don't believe God. If you don't believe God you have made yourself the final authority. If you are the final authority see how far that gets you in eternity.

    Good Day,

    Bro Tony
     
  16. just-want-peace

    just-want-peace Well-Known Member
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    Ignore the modern versions that want to change the meaning and use "young woman"! Just liberalism at work

    This comment by Mary should remove any doubt!!
     
  17. Petrel

    Petrel New Member

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    Did you see my post above? Because this was a double prophecy translating the word as "virgin" in Isaiah is misleading at best.
     
  18. TexasSky

    TexasSky Guest

    Petrel,

    Your objection to Ahaz makes no sense. There was only one Immanuel in history.
     
  19. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    Yes it is. If you will go back and read it again, this time understanding that my original post included a quote from someone who said that the Virgin Birth was necessary for the sinlessness of Christ, then there should be no more confusion about the matter.
     
  20. Petrel

    Petrel New Member

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    I don't recall objecting to Ahaz in the slightest. . .

    There was a human boy who was called Immanuel back about three millenia ago. Then there was Jesus who was God and called Immanuel.

    It makes no sense to interpret the passage as referring only to Jesus unless you think that God is so absent-minded that he often sends signs almost a thousand years after they'll do any good to the person he promised them to.
     
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