Does Christ's atonement appease the wrath of God for all sin or just for some sin? The bible seems to indicate all sin has been atoned for by Christ, but Calvinists argue that it would be blood wasted if Christ atoned for men's sin who were not forgiven. Is that a biblical arguement or just human logic? Couldn't it be that Christ did atone for all sin so that God has the freedom to justly judge men by their response to his gift of atonement presented to them in his word? Because of Christ ALL men don't have to be condemned by a just God any longer because his wrath has been appeased, once and for all. BUT He places one condition upon their benefiting from that atonement and that is that they must believe in it and repent of their wrong doing. Just like a judge might pay the fine for a criminal and then that would give the judge the freedom to let him go or sentence him based upon his response to the gift he gave. Thoughts?