[B]SDA Corrupt Matthew 28:1 in following after the Beast[/B]

RE: Quote: ...There is no Scriptural founda... [308687:567885]

GE:

Thank you very much for replying.

<<<Matt 28:1 It was the end of the Sabbath, as the day began to dawn on the first day of the week.>>>

Which is this version which you are using?

Because the KJV reads,

"In the end of the Sabbath ..." --- which is the last daylight hours beginning mid-afternoon until sunset (6 p.m.);

"... as it BEGAN to dawn TOWARDS the First Day of the week" --- which reaffirms that it was the last daylight hours beginning mid-afternoon until sunset (6 p.m.).

Your version... "The end of the Sabbath" ---sunset 6 p.m. exactly.

KJV... "IN the end of the Sabbath" -"in the end(ING)" before sunset 6 p.m.

Your version... "as the day began to dawn..."

KJV... "as IT..." Pronoun to "the END of the Sabbath began to dawn..."

Your version... "on the first day of the week"

KJV... "TOWARDS the First Day of the week"

Your version means the Sabbath ended and the First Day began sunrise 6 a.m.

The KJV means the Sabbath was ending and the First Day of the week would begin sunset 6 p.m.

All - that is, about three dozen translations - of before the twentieth century agree with the KJV that it was "LATE ON the Sabbath BEFORE the First Day of the week".

NO translation of before the twentieth century agrees with your version.

The Greek literally is, "In Sabbath's fullness being in the daylight mid-afternoon before the First Day of the week"
'opse de Sabbatohn tehi epiphohskousehi eis Mian Sabbatohn".

Compare with Luke 23:54 "The Preparation ('Friday') being in the daylight mid-afternoon before the Sabbath" – ‘epephohsken sabbaton’.