Having seen from the passage in 2 Corinthians 5:14-15, that the language Paul uses clearly shows that "all" was not used for the "elect" only. Something no Calvinist on this board has been able to refute. I would like to move a little further down in this same chapter of this Epistle. In Verse 19 Paul says: "to wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; but hath committed unto us the word of reconcilation" Who does Paul refer to here by "world"? The Calvinist will respond, "not the human race", but only "the elect". But, from the context, is this use of the word allowable? The next verse clears up any misunderstanding here. Paul goes on to say: "Now the we are ambassadors of Christ, as though God did beseech by us: we plead in behalf of Christ, be ye reconciled to God". We need to ask here. if the "world" in verse 19 is only "the elect", then we have a problem with verse 20. You see, that doctrine of Irresistible Grace is defined as follows: "GRACE WHICH IS IRRESISTIBLE The grace of God is irresistible. You understand what the term "irresistible'' emphasizes. Do not think that irresistible grace is some sort of blind force which simply drags the struggling, rebellious sinner into heaven against his will -- as a policeman might drag a rebellious prisoner to jail. The grace of God is not such a power that compels to enter into heaven those who would not. That God's grace is irresistible emphasizes the idea that not only does grace bring His people to glory, but it prepares them for this glory and works within them the desire to enter into glory. Grace is irresistible in the sense that by it the knee is bent which otherwise would not bend; the heart is softened that otherwise is hard as stone. Nor is there anything which can prevent the accomplishment of that purpose of God to save His people by His grace.(http://www.prca.org/fivepoints/chapter4.html) God, say the Calvinist, does not drag the sinner kicking and screaming into His Kingdom. But, the Holy Spirit, works in the heart of the Elect person, and softens their heart, so that they would not want to refuse His Salvation. If this is true, then the "elect" person would be more than willing to come to Jesus to obtain eternal life. Right? Then, how come Paul says in verse 20, that he "pleads" (where the word denotes, "to make an earnest supplication, to beg, implore")with these "elect" that they should be reconciled to Christ? If the "all" and "world" in this passage were only "the elect", then it must denote "all of the elect". Then, we see that Paul is "pleading" with all of the elect to be reconciled to God. Why is this? If the Holy Spirit so works in their hearts so that they would not want to refuse, why the need to "plead" with them? This language suggests that the "elect" might not want to come, even after the Holy Spirit works in them. I see no other way in taking this entire passage, but to apply it to the whole human race. This alone makes any sense of the language used here. The offer through the Gospel is God, through His loving-kindness, and great mercy, "pleads" with man to be reconciled to Him through the death of the Redeemer, the Lord Jesus Christ. To limit the words in the passage to the "elect", makes nonsense of the so-called doctrine of "Irresistible Grace"