Can a man sin a sin unto death after being born again.

Sorry you don't see Paul and the Corinthian 'brethren' as "born again". :tear:

Is that some advanced revelation over what I read and quoted, maybe? Maybe found in the book of Calamity or Opinion, for example?

Ed

 

You cannot do what born again?
David committed adultery and then tried to cover it up by murdering the husband of Bathsheba. He was still called a "man after God's own heart." Was he saved or not?

 

No, not and commit a sin unto death, unfortunantly, the devil is a thorn in the flesh that will buffet all of God's children until we die, but we shall never fall from Grace and commit a sin unto death, we is kept by the power of God. We all sin, which is of the devil but its not sins such as killing, adultery, stealing etc. Our tongues gets us into trouble a lot. We fail to do what we should a lot. We are none perfect, but we do not fall from Grace into sins unto death. We have the "indwelling of the Holy Spirit" and the "mind of Christ" of which David did not. There were times God was not pleased with David.

I believe in once saved always saved Charles.

1Cr 1:8Who shall also confirm you unto the end, [that ye may be] blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.

1Th 5:23¶And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and [I pray God] your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

1Th 5:24Faithful [is] he that calleth you, who also will do [it].

Eph 4:30And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.

Jud 1:24¶Now unto him that is able to keep you from falling, and to present [you] faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy,

Jud 1:25To the only wise God our Saviour, [be] glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen.

 

Any Biblical support for your assumption "He no doubt ever was?"

 

I do watch what I say. Do you?
Here is what the Bible says about David:

Psalms 51:12 Restore unto me the joy of thy salvation; and uphold me with thy free spirit.
--David believed in OSAS, one might say. In other words he knew he was saved. In spite of what he had done he was sure of his salvation. What had been broken was his fellowship with God. He doesn't pray for salvation; he prays that the joy of his salvation might be restored. There is a big difference. He was already saved; already justified.

Psalms 51:2-3 Wash me throughly from mine iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin.
3 For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin is ever before me.
--David was very conscious of his sin. His sin caused a separation between him and His God (Jehovah). It was a matter of fellowship, not salvation. He was asking for forgiveness that fellowship might be restored. This entire psalm of repentance has nothing to do with salvation. Even if he had died without this repentance he would have gone to heaven. He was already redeemed.

What does the NT say about David?
Romans 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
--This is the principle that Paul is teaching--Salvation is by faith, and not of works. He uses both Abraham and David as examples. Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness sake. He wasn't saved by his works, but because he believed. Now Paul says this about David:

Romans 4:6-8 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.

David was made righteous by his belief in Jehovah. It had nothing to do with what he did or did not do. David testified that he was that man to whom the Lord would not impute sin. He was assured of his salvation. Even Paul attests the same about David quoting David from Psalms 32:1,2. He had not lost his salvation.

 

Ephesians 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins;
--A "dead" person (unsaved one) has no life (is not spiritually alive). So Paul says about the Ephesian believers--you were once dead (spiritually), but you are now alive (spiritually--born again).
Live only comes from Christ. He is the vine; we are the branches. A saved person draws on Christ because he is connected to Christ via the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. An unsaved person has no life. He is disconnected from the vine, and never had any life in him. He is dead. That is what Paul said about the Ephesian believers before they were saved. If you are alive (born again), you will indeed bear fruit, as Christ says you will. A dead and lifeless branch bears no fruit. How could it have been saved if it was saved.

 

I'm not really interested in word games. I'm more interested in the meaning of the gospel. Jesus Christ said:

Mat 6:24 No man can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.

The way I interpret this is that while we may continue to sin, Christians will follow Christ as their Lord and Master. To be a slave to sin is to be lost.

 

Amen Charles C;

 

It doesn't matter what I say. It matters what the Bible says. What does the Word of God say. In order here is what God said:
1. David lusted.
2. David committed adultery.
3. David murdered.
4. David was confronted with his sin by Nathan,

2 Samuel 12:13 And David said unto Nathan, I have sinned against the LORD. And Nathan said unto David, The LORD also hath put away thy sin; thou shalt not die.

My question to you: Shall I believe your philosophy based on man's opinion, or shall I believe what the Bible tells me? I already know what my answer is.

 

Once saved always saved.

 

Charles
You have a misunderstanding of the Scriptures you quoted.
Answer this:
John, writing to believers, and including himself (using the pronoun "we") writes:

1 John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

If Jesus Christ living in us, doesn't sin, then why do we on a daily basis have to go to the Lord and confess the sins that we commit? Why do we have to come to Christ to ask for forgiveness of sin, if after we are saved, we have no sin to confess. If your theology is correct--a true Christian doesn't sin--then this verse shouldn't be in the Bible. John includes himself here. If WE

1 John 2:1 My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

The same questions above may be asked here. Why does John include this verse if we have no sins. He writes if any man sin Obviously we do sin, otherwise he would not have written that verse. It is written to believers as is the entire epistle. Christians sin. They have a choice. They are not automatons controlled by the Holy Spirit or Christ. You have a choice to sin, and often give into it. Paul described the struggle he had with sin in Romans chapter 7. He said that sin dwells in him.

 

But you fail to recognize that there is a sin and there is a sin unto death!!! There are sins that the scripture says will not enter the Kingdom of God, and there is a sin that is not unto death. That is the Holy Scripture.