I understand the Historic Baptist interpretation of Christ's statement, but I am confused about how the Pelagian/Arminian/Finneyian Baptist -- sorry, I do not know how to rightly distinguish you -- interprets this statement. I hear from these Baptists a high regard for personal human choice. Therefore, would this assertion by the Master indicate that everyone excepting the disciples had/have/will-have a choice? Note: I do not intend to initiate a polemic debate on the question. Nor do I care to hear from any that are not actually members in good standing and in regular attendance of a Baptist church (i.e., one with an ordained pastor). If possible, just explain it irenically and simply, as you would to a child asking the question in your own congregation. I will not challenge the interpretation, but I may ask additional questions if I do not rightly understand. Thank you for your time and attention.