I found a word in Matthew 18:14, a long big real word in the Greek that was simply not translated—not in the Received Text nor in the Nestle-Aband, although it was in the Greek text in both of these. There it is, but there it is not translated! This word in the Greek is NT:1715 Emprosthen 1. adverbially, in front, before: Rev 4:6 2. it serves as a preposition, with the genitive a. before, i. e. in that local region which is in front of a person or a thing: Matt 5:24 b. before, in the presence of, Matt 27:11 c. before, i. e., in the sight of one: Matt 5:16 d. before, denoting rank: John 1:15,30 Please take some time to look up these verses, and you will see how they are used in the Bible text, and it is a significant word. This totally surprised me! I wondered why this word was not translated, and so I went on a quest to find out which English Bible translated it. I found two cases. The Young’s Literal Translation used it, but it was so weird that one could not make any sense of it. The second was in NASB, it was not in the text, but in the footnotes, and there also one would never guess on how to insert it into the text. And there I sat wondering why this long word was not even translated in the Greek, in the Greek interlinear, let alone in any of the main translations. I did recently come across a printed interlinear that shows it, and it simply says “before”. Let us put this word Emprosthen (meaning in front or before) in and just see how it would read. Well, at least in my opinion. 10 "See that you do not despise one of these little ones, for I say to you that their angels in heaven continually see the face of My Father who is in heaven. 11["For the Son of Man has come to save that which was lost.]12 "What do you think? If any man has a hundred sheep, and one of them has gone astray, does he not leave the ninety-nine on the mountains and go and search for the one that is straying? 13 "If it turns out that he finds it, truly I say to you, he rejoices over it more than over the ninety-nine which have not gone astray. 14 "So it is not the will of your Father *before or in front of you* who is in heaven that one of these little ones perish.15 "If your brother sins, go and show him his fault in private; if he listens to you, you have won your brother. 16 "But if he does not listen to you, take one or two more with you, so that BY THE MOUTH OF TWR THREE WITNESSES EVERY FACT MAY BE CONFIRMED. 17 "If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church; and if he refuses to listen even to the church, let him be to you as a Gentile and a tax collector. 18 "Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven. 19 "Again I say to you, that if two of you agree on earth about anything that they may ask, it shall be done for them by My Father who is in heaven. 20 "For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst." Now some of you readers would get very touchy about my placement of that word in this verse, but here it is in the Greek word-for-word… Even so not it is will in front or before the Father your which is in heaven, that should perish one the little of these Notice that in Greek, the nouns and verbs are reversed in comparison on how we place things in English. Once one reads the Greek interlinears for a while, one can grasp how the words are to be sorted. I may not have this correct, but when I look at the entire text here, I see that it indeed makes sense in light of verse 18:11 and comparing verses 18:19-20 together. I could see that it may be translated, this word, in front of will, but in context, does it really make sense??? So... What is Jesus saying? Or even why is this word not translated? And as we look at the verse 18:11…can we honestly say that it is to be omitted and placed in the footnotes? Was 18:11 deliberately removed? And again, why not translate all the words in the Greek to English? I would appreciate them exactly as they are. For that matter, we can also check on John 3:13. Was the last part of the verse “who is in heaven” omitted as well for the same reasons? For most new Bibles do not even include it as a footnote. John 3:13 13 No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven. NKJV Just thoughts as when I look at the context of these verses, particularly as it wraps up in 19 and 20, I can see where it makes sense. I would love to hear from any Greek experts on this verse. Thanks so kindly.