It has been said on another thread that God does not have to follow the same law He sets before man. I'm talking about the righteous, holy law (moral), not the ceremonial or social laws. Case in point; He can command men not to hate, calling it murder and sin, but He is sovereign and can hate (in the way we know hate to mean, the opposite of love) based on "Jacob I loved, Esau I hated". We are commanded to love even our enemies. Does this apply to God? Well, since Jesus is 100% God along with man, since He stated anyone who hates is a murderer, since He is God too, could He have hated(murdered) and it would not have been sin for Him? Could He have lusted (committed adultery) too? I'm not following the argument that God does not follow His own holy, righteous moral laws and the very commands He puts before man. If He tells us to be holy and righteos as He is holy and righteous, how can He do the opposite of these same righteous, holy commands placed before us?