Could the 1611 edition of the KJV have been better? Were the KJV translators themselves responsible for any renderings in the 1611 edition that later editiors changed? Did the rules given the KJV translators hinder the translators in any way? Were there any clearer, better, or more accurate renderings available in the earlier English Bibles of which the KJV was a revision that the KJV translators did not follow? Rule 1: "The ordinary Bible read in the Church, commonly called the Bishops' Bible, to be followed, and as little altered as the Truth of the original will permit." Rule 3 "The old ecclesiastical words to be kept, viz. the word Church not to be translated Congregation &c." Rule 14 "These translations to be used when they agree better with the Text than the Bishops' Bible: Tyndale's, Matthew's, Coverdale's, Whitchurch's [Great], Geneva."