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Could the "National I.D." be (or become later) the Mark of the Beast?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by tamborine lady, Jan 6, 2007.

  1. Claudia_T

    Claudia_T New Member

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    It is his title (name) when he is crowned.
     
  2. Marcia

    Marcia Active Member

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    I just saw your previous post on this - sorry, I somehow missed it.
     
  3. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    The NT was written under the Roman Empire which DID use Roman numerals for numbers - having letters that represent numbers. The fact that this LATIN name adds up to 666 and the NT author is WRITING at the time of ROME's domination can not simply be ignored. The LATIN name given IS based on the ROMAN system.

    The practice of using those letters for numbers was aLREADY in use by the John's readers!! It is IN context!!

    in Christ,

    Bob
     
  4. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    Bob, the point is that we have the Greek NT today. I can put it on the board if you like but it would be easier to give you a link so you can read the Greek for yourself. Believe me, it is not written in Roman numerals. The inspired Word of God, which is our authority is not written in Roman Numerals. It is God's Word, not man's words, that is our authority.
     
  5. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    cxV
    chi xi stigma khee xee stig'-ma
    the 22nd, 14th and an obsolete letter (4742 as a cross) of the Greek alphabet (intermediate between the 5th and 6th), used as numbers; denoting respectively 600, 60 and 6; 666 as a numeral:--six hundred threescore and six. (Strongs)
     
  6. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    My argument is not that the Greek text is latin. My argument is that AT THE TIME of the writing of the letter by John they WERE under the Roman empire that DID use Latin in it's official documents and the READERS of the letter from John ALREADY knew and referenced the Roman Numeral method of "number of his name".

    The process of exegesis demands that we understand the writing in terms of the Primary audience to whom John was writing.

    there is no use in pretending that citizens of the Roman empire in the first century did NOT know about the Roman practice of numbering using letters such that NAMES would have NUMBERs.

    It is just impossible to pretend this historic fact away AND it is a key component of exegeting the text!

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  7. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    If the answer is that one-of-the popes is the antichrist then you are right - the guy's name. But if it is the position not just the person...
     
  8. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    It doesn't matter what your argument for Roman Numerals is Bob.
    God has the last say. If you fail to bellieve Him, your belief is futile.
    God wrote His words in Greek. It is the Greek language that we must deal with. They are the inspired words of God. He didn't write in English, Spanish, Latin, or in any other language. He wrote the NT in Greek. The number 666 was written in Greek, the number which I have posted above in actual Greek letters, using the alphabet of the Greek language. That is what you must deal with. Roman numerals are out, as far as God is concerned.
     
  9. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    My argument is not that the Greek text is latin. My argument is that AT THE TIME of the writing of the letter by John they WERE under the Roman empire that DID use Latin in it's official documents and the READERS of the letter from John ALREADY knew and referenced the Roman Numeral method of "number of his name".

    The process of exegesis demands that we understand the writing in terms of the Primary audience to whom John was writing.

    there is no use in pretending that citizens of the Roman empire in the first century did NOT know about the Roman practice of numbering using letters such that NAMES would have NUMBERs.

    It is just impossible to pretend this historic fact away AND it is a key component of exegeting the text!
     
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