As I understand the teaching of Calvinism, the depravity of man has so affected his will that man is unable to respond to God. As much as this is an accurate understanding, which of the following questions would Calvinism be able to answer? In the first question God is responding to a circumstance, in the second question God purposed the circumstance. In both scenarios God is enabling only some men to respond to Him. In response to such an inability, did/does God then miraculously enable only some men to respond to Him? -OR- Was/is it God's purpose that man would have such an inability and that God miraculously enables only some men to respond to Him?