Did God cause the earthquake in Haiti?

I know this thread has been dormant for over a year now, and this "poster" may not post on here anymore, but I want to address something he stated.

I wasn't aware that God was in the nation judging business anymore. I thought in this New Testament age of grace God deals with individuals and not nation states.

 

What was it here in Amos 4? Did Amos consult the weather channel than figure out what caused the famine and drought?

 

Silly goose...

(sorry couldn't resist. BTW, I agree with your post Sag38)

 

When I look at my Bible it is divided into the New Testament and the Old Testament. Things ARE different in them. Forget the dispensational wordage I used and just look at the scripture. There was the Law and repeatable sacrifices and now there is Grace and Christ's one sacrifice. God judged nations in the Old Testament. Where is the call for nation judging in the New Testament? (Or would you say the Crusades justified?)

That's all I was saying.

 

Most of the quote you posted wasn't mine. I don't how it got mixed up. I said God is God and I'm not. The other part wasn't my words. It was Iconoclast.

 

Does God allow or cause in these situations? I can definitely see the legitimacy of the argument that says God allows certain things to happen when it relates to the freedom of human beings - i.e., God allows them to sin through their free will.

But when it comes to the natural order, I don't see how you can escape that God does cause these things. Tectonic plates do not have a will of their own, like a man does. Waves and weather do not act upon their own instincts - they have no intelligence whatsoever. So we either have a natural order that is random and outside of God's control, or we have God who is directing these things.

If you want to argue for a deist god that "sets it all in motion" then you will still have to come to one of these conclusions - either it is all random after God sets it in motion (and thus, out of his control), or God programmed it at the time he set it in motion (and thus, he de facto caused it).

 

In the context of the creation the word is "upholds".

He did not just set things in motion but "upholds" or maintains and enables the laws of creation as well as in the spiritual realm:

Hebrews 1:1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;​

3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins,

"upholding" is a present participle, indicating continuous action.

Paul was speaking to unbelievers when he said this:

Acts 17:28 For in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said, For we are also his offspring.​

HankD​

 

OK, I understand.

 

Is there any real distinction between these two options in the Calvinistic framework?

 

Perfect opportunity for Luke to define decree for us

 

In the light;
The bible can be looked at in one sense as divided into the time before the cross and the time after the cross,yes. There are some things different before the cross and yet God is exact and unchanging. Certain aspects of the law given to Israel as a theocracy were specific to them. Other elements remain or were expanded./
Why would you think it is a different God or a different way of handling things .
in Acts 5 individual judgement came to ;Ananias and his wife-

In Second Peter 3 we are told that this world is still held together by the same word of God as when he destroyed the earth in Noahs day.

Because we do not have special revelation any more does not mean God has given over the control of this world to anyone else.

 

I'm not holding my breath.


BTW, I failed to publicly acknowledge the accuracy of your prophecy regarding that discussion. Amazingly accurate. :saint:

 

Well Luke could do that,or we could ask Louis Berkof to tell us here;

 

It would be a start to see if he agrees with anything Berkof stated

FWIW, the very first thing I saw when clicking on this link was "This article or section may require cleanup to meet Theopedia's quality standards."

 

:laugh: I'm one for one in the prophecy department.

 

Nowhere did I assert that God doesn't control the world or has given control to anyone else. I did say that God no longer judges individual nations, rather he judges individuals. That's it.

 

For the tenth time.

 

It just takes one to prove it to everyone here that you are not lying right now. I challenge you to link to the post where you defined the term "decree."

Note: Quoting the term being used in a confessional statement is not a definition.

 

What reason do you have to believe this is not true?