did God Impute The Sin of Adam Unto mankind or Not?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JesusFan, Dec 6, 2011.

  1. JesusFan

    JesusFan
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    Just as the rightousness of Christ has been imputed/applied to us IF we are redeemed...

    Did God impute/apply to us the sin of Adam or not?
     
  2. Winman

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    Eze 18:1 The word of the LORD came unto me again, saying,
    2 What mean ye, that ye use this proverb concerning the land of Israel, saying, The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth are set on edge?
    3 As I live, saith the Lord GOD, ye shall not have occasion any more to use this proverb in Israel.
    4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.

    The Jews had a false proverb, that the fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth are set on edge. This was speaking of sin, they falsely believed a father's sin was passed down to his children. God refutes this and says a man that sins shall die.

    Eze 18:20 The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.

    This is very clear and straightforward, again God says the soul that sins shall die. Then he very clearly says the son shall not bear the iniquity of his father or vice versa.

    2 Chron 25:3 Now it came to pass, when the kingdom was established to him, that he slew his servants that had killed the king his father.
    4 But he slew not their children, but did as it is written in the law in the book of Moses, where the LORD commanded, saying, The fathers shall not die for the children, neither shall the children die for the fathers, but every man shall die for his own sin.

    King Amaziah understood the word of God. He killed the servants that had killed his father, but he did not kill their children. Note the book of Moses said EVERY man shall die for his OWN sin.

    If Adam's sin was imputed to us, then God would be breaking his own law.
     
  3. JesusFan

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    Christ is the feudal head of saved humanity, while Adam is the head of fallen humanity

    that is the point paul was driving Home, in that one man sin and disobedience made death , spiritual and physical ,come unto all men, while the obedience of One man brought ternal life to all who believed in Him!
     
  4. convicted1

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    If you already knew the answer before starting this thread, why did you do this anyway??


    You are akin to the one under the bridge in "Three Bill Goats Gruff", if you ask me....
     
  5. freeatlast

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    Yes. Romans 5:12-14

    "World" here is kosmos, the human race, the same word used in John 3:16 of the world of sinners. Sin originated with the angel Lucifer, who in rebelling against God contracted a sinful nature. Adam in his disobedience was the channel through which sin entered the human race. Through sin, death entered the race, physical and spiritual. The literal Greek which follows is, "And thus into all men death came throughout." That is, when death entered the race, it went throughout the race, affecting everyone. The reason why death affects all, Paul says, is that all sinned. Here Adam is looked upon as the federal head of the race, and that when he sinned, all of humanity sinned in him. It is Adam's initial sin that constituted him a sinner in which all human beings participated, and which brings death upon all. In other words, we are sinners, not because we have committed acts of sin, but because Adam sinned.
    Now Paul proceeds to explain and demonstrate this. Until the law was given, that is, during the period between Adam and Moses, sin was in the world. But sin is not put to the account of the person when there is no law. Yet, death reigned as king from the time of Adam to that of Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of Adam's transgression. Since death comes by means of sin, and those living between Adam and Moses had no sins charged to their account by reason of the non-existence of the written law, and yet in spite of that, died, logic leads us to conclude that their death came by reason of Adam's sin and that they sinned in him, their federal head. Adam is spoken of as "the figure of Him who was to come." "Figure" is tupos, used in a doctrinal sense of a type, a person or thing prefiguring a future (Messianic) person or thing; in this sense Adam is called a type of Jesus Christ, each of the two having exercised a preeminent influence upon the human race (the former destructive, the latter, saving) (Thayer).
    Translation: Wherefore, as through the intermediate agency of one man the aforementioned sin into the world entered, and through this sin, death; and thus into and throughout all mankind death entered, because all sinned. For until law, sin was in the world, but sin is not put to one's account, there being no law. But death reigned as king from Adam to Moses, even over those who did not sin in the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of the One who is to come.
    —Wuest's Word Studies
     
  6. Herald

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    I have to agree with this. It would fine to start a thread about the imputation of the sin of Adam by making a statement, and then asking for a discussion. To ask a question when you already have a formed opinion appears misleading.
     
  7. InTheLight

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