Did Jesus Have Faith?

He did not lay it aside. He just did not use it!

 

If you took the time to read my posts, that is what I said.
If I lay aside my newspaper, I choose not to read it.

 

Jhn 1:1 ¶ In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Does this verse imply more than one entity. The word and God. When the Word became flesh and dwelt among us was there still one called God the Father in heaven?

Hbr 2:13 And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me. Hbr 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;

Here we have one who was at one time immortal but now is subject to death and decay. Lets see what he has to say about flesh.

n 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Jhn 3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.

But the plan was for one to become flesh and die to pay the penalty for sin and the other to raise him from the dead. This might take faith.

Act 13:30 But God raised him from the dead:

Phl 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Phl 2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Hbr 1:4 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they. Hbr 1:5 ¶ For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.

When did this happen?

Act 13:33 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.

This the reason I think that it was and is the faith of Jesus the Christ that saves us and the reason Paul wrote this as the KJV has it:

Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified Gal 2:20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.

The faith of and not our faith in.

Just my thoughts.

 

Hi Tom;
Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

If Christ had no faith we could never be justified because we are justified by His faith and not our own.
MB

 

It's a case form of the noun and it can be translated "in" or "of" (among other things). The context really determines how it should be translated and sometimes what the context dictates is in the eye of the beholder. The translation "faith of Jesus Christ" is pretty hard to justify, IMHO. If you translate it that way in this case, why would you not translate it that way in other places. That would change our theology drastically because we would no longer say that salvation is by faith in Christ, but rather is by the faith of Christ.

Thomas Schreiner has an excellent excursis on this topic in his commentary on Romans. If you want a thorough examination of the topic, I'd recommend that. I believe Doug Moo may address it in his Romans commentary as well, but I'm not sure about that one.

 

For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. Heb 2

In all things except sin, Christ was made like the elect. Abraham believed God. Christ believed God.

Christ had faith.

 

We are not justified by his faith, but by faith in him because of his atonement. We are justified through faith in Christ.

Christ did not need faith; he was the Son of God and that never changed, even when he became man.

 

Well if you read my post above I guess you could say that is my theology.

Hbr 11:1 ¶ Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.

Is this a statement of things natural or supernatural.

Hbr 11:2 For by it the elders obtained a good report.

Was this good report obtained because of something they believed or was it because what they did because of the faithfulness of God. The one example I will use because it is the easiest.

Hbr 11:29 By faith they passed through the Red sea as by dry [land]: which the Egyptians assaying to do were drowned.

These people were just complaining that Moses had taken them out in the wilderness to die. They were trapped. Then a few weeks later they were making the golden calf. This after God delivered them through the sea. Was this their faith or the faithfulness of God.

Gal 3:14 That the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ; that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.

My understanding is that in the original this should end with the definite article the before faith.


That we might receive the promise of the spitit through the faith.

Also these two verses are interesting.

Gal 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe. Gal 3:24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster [to bring us] unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.

I could go on and on but I won't. That should bring a smile.

 

I think the mistake we make is in calling Christ fully God and fully man, as if there are two different entities. Jesus is the God-Man. He does not have faith. He is the essence of faith. There is a huge difference.

We can all talk about having faith in something, such as climbing a ladder or crossing a bridge. Perhaps this faith is better expressed as trust.

Cheers,

Jim

 

Galatians 2:16 – πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ [NA27]

Galatians 3:22 – πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
AV 1873

But the Scripture imprisoned everything under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.
ESV

Romans 3:22 – πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
AV 1873

the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction:
ESV

Romans 3:26 – πίστεως Ἰησοῦ
to declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
AV 1873

It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
ESV

Ephesians 3:12 – πίστεως αὐτοῦ
in whom we have boldness and access with confidence by the faith of him.
AV 1873

in whom we have boldness and access with confidence through our faith in him.
ESV

Philippians 3:9 – πίστεως Χριστοῦ
and be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:
AV 1873

and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith—
ESV

If you are concerned with bible codes you might ask the question,
“Why did Paul use this expression in the third chapter of so many of his letters?”

Rob

 

I know what Heb 13:8 says Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today, and forever.

However was there any difference in the Word in John 1:1 and lets say John 1:14 or John 3:5 or lets say John 5:19 or John 19:28? By the same token was there any difference in the Word that became flesh, Jesus in the passages John 1:14 thru John 19:28 and the person spoken of in Acts 7:56 or Acts 9:5?

If the answer is yes, please explain the following verse to me.

Act 2:33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear

Did Jesus receive something in which he did not have or am I reading something here that isn't here?

I guess I am asking what do we mean fully God and fully man or as some put it God-man? I think the Word, God became flesh for the purpose of death. When I say death I mean dead. Without life of any kind. Dead forever unless God the Father does something about it. See 1 Cor. 15:15-18.

 

There's no question that even our faith will be sight, and then it will be no more faith. The question, as I see it, is, was Christ made low enough to have to accept certain things on faith? In other words, did He believe without seeing? I think the answer is obvious.

If the question is, was Christ saved by faith, the answer would be no. What a preposterous question!

 

I understand what you're saying. It seems to me that by the same reasoning I would have to say that Jesus was never weak enough to die at the hands of men.

I won't argue any further. I could be wrong, but in the present it's irrelevant. We no longer know Christ by the flesh. We serve and worship Him as God. He is the object of my faith, and, as Bob Griffin's signature says, "Jesus knows me, this I love."

 

Since we're on a different subject . . .

There's no question that Christ made Himself weak enough to die, and that at the hands of men. Joseph was warned in a dream that Herod sought the Child's life, so he and Mary took Christ into Egypt. Christ was just as dependent upon Providence for the preservation of His mortal life as we are today.