did Jesus rise on the first day of the week?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by gekko, Apr 16, 2006.

  1. gekko

    gekko
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    what do you people think?

    i've got to go to church right now, so i will be back later to provide some scripture for this thread.

    God bless,
    gek.
     
  2. Alcott

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  3. BobRyan

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    Yes.

    See my thread already started on that point.
     
  4. rbell

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    No doubt about it.
     
  5. JFox1

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    Yes, He did.
     
  6. Eliyahu

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  7. gekko

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    provide some proof people.

    which day was Jesus buried, and at what time of the day?

    i disagree that Jesus rose on the first day of the week.
     
  8. tamborine lady

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    [​IMG]

    He arose sometime after midnight on Sunday, because when the women went to the tomb on the first day of the week, He wasn;t there, He was already risen. I believe His body rested in the tomb until the Sabbath was over.

    Tam
     
  9. rbell

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    Gekko,

    The biblical record backs us up...what else is there to prove?

    And why are you interested in disproving it?
     
  10. mman

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    There is no question as to when Jesus rose from the dead, the first day of the week or on Sunday. Matthew, Mark, Luke and John all make this clear. However, what is confusing to some is the day on which Jesus was crucified.

    There can be much written on this topic, however, it is irrelevant to anyone's salvation. The important part is that He was crucified, buried, and raised from the dead.

    Here is a brief opinion as to when he was crucified. He told the people he would be 3 days and 3 nights in the grave (Matt 12:38-40).

    That would have put his crucifixion on Wednesday. The Jewish days began in the evening. Therefore, He would have spent, Thursday (Wed evening and the daylight of Thursday), Friday (Thursday evening and Friday), and Saturday (Friday evening and the daylight of Saturday) in the grave. He arose from the grave some time before daylight (John 20:1). Therefore, he would have spent 3 full days and 3 full nights in the grave, just has he had said.

    This position only makes sense when you realize that the Holy Days or High Days were to be considered as Sabbath’s. Read, Leviticus 23:37-38 “These are the set feasts of Jehovah, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, to offer an offering made by fire unto Jehovah, a burnt-offering, and a meal-offering, a sacrifice, and drink-offerings, each on its own day; besides the Sabbaths of Jehovah, and besides your gifts, and besides all your vows, and besides all your freewill-offerings, which ye give unto Jehovah.” The Passover was one of seven feasts the Jews observed and did so as holy days, or Sabbaths. Note what Moses told the people concerning the Passover in Numbers 28:16-18 “And in the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, is Jehovah's Passover. And on the fifteenth day of this month shall be a feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten. In the first day shall be a holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work.”

    If the 14th fell on Wednesday and the Holy day of the feast of the Passover fell on Thursday then you would have had two Sabbaths in the same week, which was nothing unusual for the Jews because at least seven times in the year they had an additional Sabbath to observe.

    Did the Passover ever fall on Thursday during the timeframe when Jesus was crucified? Yes, once in AD 30. Evidence shows that Jesus was born somewhere from 4 to 6 B.C. His ministry lasted at least 3 years, so the evidence supports this opinion.

    The only way I can reconcile the following two verses is to understand that there were 2
    Sabbaths in the crucifixion week.

    Note: Mark 16:1, “Now when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome bought spices, that they might come and anoint Him.”

    And

    Luke 23:54-56 “That day was the Preparation, and the Sabbath drew near. And the women who had come with Him from Galilee followed after, and they observed the tomb and how His body was laid. Then they returned and prepared spices and fragrant oils. And they rested on the Sabbath according to the commandment.

    In the first verse, they bought spices after the Sabbath and the next verse they prepared the spices and then rested on the Sabbath. Both cannot be true with just one Sabbath. However, if you allow for two Sabbath days in that week, one on Thursday and then Saturday, they would have bought and prepared the spices on Friday, and both statements are accurate.

    Notice, they had to buy spices and prepare them. They couldn’t run down to the all night spice store and buy them, which would have been necessary if the only Sabbath that week was on Saturday.

    Notice Matt 28:1, “Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to see the tomb.”

    The word translated as Sabbath is “sabbaton”That word is genitive plural. Simply put, you get a truer picture when it is correctly translated as “After the Sabbaths” , since the previous week contained two Sabbaths.

    YLT - And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn…

    Yes, this is the short version.
     
  11. xdisciplex

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    Why is Sunday the first day of the week?
    I always thought Monday is the first day because Sunday is the end of the old week.
    Doesn't a week start with Monday?
     
  12. donnA

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    The bible specifies first day of the week. Not sure what more proof anyone would want.
     
  13. Hope of Glory

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    The seventh day, or the sabbath ends the old week.

    And the Jewish days did not begin and end at midnight; they began and ended at 6 PM.

    If you have access to a perpetual calendar (the one from Encyclopedia Britannica is a good one), it is easier to convert from modern reckoning to the reckoning of the time.

    But, the Passover fell on Thursday (beginning at sundown on Wednesday). Therefore, the Feast of Unleavened Bread began on Friday (Thursday evening), and followed by the regular weekly Sabbath (Friday evening until Saturday evening).

    Therefore, not only did He spend three days and three nights in the Grave, but also it was three complete Sabbaths. He did no work on those Sabbaths, just as the law commands. He wasn’t raised until they were completed. (Which is why they did not anoint his body on the intervening day.)
     
  14. BobRyan

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    In Luke 23 we are told that Sunday - late sunday afternoon "IS THE THIRD DAY" since the Crucifixion.

    THE DAY time of Sunday is in fact "week-day one" for Bible "weekly reconning" or as you call it "Jewish time".

    That means "from evening until evening" is God's way of counting days - starting in Genesis 1.

    Which STILL leaves Sunday (day time) as the real "third day" since the crucifixion.

    That means that the a "6th hour" or a "9th hour" event on the day of Crucifixion HAD to be the daytine of Friday!

    Also - in Bible reconning "DAWN" was always at sunrise EVEN though the day begins the previous evening.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  15. gekko

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    im reading luke 23... exactly what verse does it say that sunday afternoon is the third day since the crucifixion? or is that in luke 24?

    in genesis its "and the evening and the morning were the first day" etc.

    not "from evening until evening"

    now. from evening until morning. what's the defenition of morning? if evening is dusk, and morning is dawn... well... that's a pretty short day dont ya think? i dont know where im going with this. could somebody elaborate?

    bob. if Christ died on friday. and rose on sunday... that's not 3 full days and nights... is it.
     
  16. BobRyan

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    I stand corrected - it is chapter 24 --

    The "Bible" always uses "Dawn" as the time of the rising of the sun. You have "mixed in" the concept of "day" as in "daylight" with the Jewish Day as in "evening and Morning".

    However such a "mixture" does not work EITHER with the Jewish OR the Roman system. To claim that "Dawn" is the start of the 24 hour day does not work for the Jewish system (starting at evening as opposed to dawn) or the Roman system (starting at midnight).

    The Romans never said that midnight was DAWN. And the Jews (the Bible actually -- so that is "God") never said that evening is DAWN.

    hence the flaw in your argument.
     
  17. BobRyan

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    #1. Genesis does not say that "Evening is dawn" and the Romans did not call "Midnight dawn". Never did any of these groups call "Dawn" anything but the time of actual morning where the sun is rising. you're mix of these concepts does not work in either system.

    #2. It is in Luke 24 that we see that the first day of the week (week day one) is the THIRD day since the crucifixion. That point remains even if you don't like the Jewish concept of inclusion which allows for any part of the day to be labeled as the entire day. In other words - Christ in the grave Saturday-evening until very early Sunday morning in Jewish reconning is still the entire day.

    But if you don't accept that - it really does not matter since Luke 24 is very clear that late Sunday afternoon is still "the THIRD DAY" since these things were done and LUKE 24 start out stating explicitly Christ was to arise the THIRD day!

    There is just no escaping a Friday crucifixion given the facts of Luke 24. This is a "report after the fact" not a prediction using terms that need to be interpreted.

    The chapter is either in or out!

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  18. mman

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    Out of curosity, how do you reconcile Mark 16:1 and Luke 23:56.

    I did this on my prior post, but I was wondering your thoughts?

    Also, how do you account for the 3 nights in the grave?
     
  19. Eric B

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    There is much confusion regarding the four different Resurrection accounts, which this issue stems from. Here is a sequencing I put together by studying them, and realizing that what one gospel may call "the women" or "the disciples" may not necessarily be the same group another gospel is discussiong. This may be why, for example, there are "women" who prepare spices "before" the sabbath, and also "after" the sabbath. It does not mean there were too sabbaths. There was an annual sabbath around that time, but it could have fallen on the weekly sabbath (and isn't that what "that sabbath was a high day" means?).

    http://members.aol.com/etb700/resurrection.html

    I used to go with the literal 72 hours theory (but from Wed. to beginning of the Hebrew reckoned "first day" on Sat. night, not Thurs. to Sun.), but I notice that the pregression is always Crucifixion-sabbath-resurrection with seemingly no days inbetween.
     
  20. EdSutton

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    The attempted reading of "full" into the text is the problem. The text(s) never uses that word, as regards the crucufixion and resurrection of the Lord, any more than we do in ordinary usage. If I were to tell you I worked on something for "three days straight", would you even begin to assume that I meant exactly three twelve hour periods, in this? Unless you were already attempting to "prove" a point? Three days and three nights may in fact refer to some 72 hour period, (although I do not believe that it is that defining), but we don't get there by reading "full" into the text to prove it. That is adding to the Word of God!

    Nor do we read "In the tomb" into Matthew 12:39-40 with any honesty, either. The text does not say that.

    I'll get back to this a bit later, since my computer just ate my attempted post, and I cannot draw it up again.
    In His grace,
    Ed
     

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