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Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by Yeshua1, Aug 24, 2013.
Did the Lord jesus, or the jewish peoples of NT times?
It is likely that they did consider the LXX the inspired word of God because they quoted from it about 10 times as often as they did from the Masoretic Text. That is why N.T. quotes from the O.T. don't mirror them exactly in our bibles.
So when the Apostles used/quoted the LXX source instead of the Masoretic hebrew texts, they were using what they regarded was a better source?
This is all conjecture. It is an unanswerable question.
There is no way to answer your questiob definitively. The LXX was quoted in the N.T. As such it was considered, at least in those instances, to be authoritative.
You would have to ask the apostles why they quoted so heavily from the LXX. There are several possibilities:
The LXX was more readily available in those days.
Since they were writing in Greek, they could quote from the Greek language LXX without having to translate it.
They thought it was a better translation.
The LXX would shed light on the Hebrew text, reflecting the current thinking of the time (understanding of the Hebrew text),
since Hebrew is of limited vocabulary as opposed to the Koine Greek. However, the Torah reflects the most carefully
portion of the Old Testament as the remainder of the O.T. was translated over a long period of time and not as carefully/consistently translated.
I don't believe the entire LXX was inspited by God as the OT/NT manuscripts were, so could the answer be that was the version well known and used at that time, especially among greek influenced jews/gentiles, and that the Holy spirit allowed for what he knew was accurate portions to be used by Apsotles, much as Jude took portion of Enoch to use?