Did the KJV translators in the 1611 KJV remove the name "Jehovah" at any verses where it was used in the pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV was a revision? In my opinion, this is a fair and valid question since some KJV-only authors and advocates will claim that some present English Bibles have removed the name "Jehovah" at the few places where it was used in the KJV. In effect, they will condemn present English Bibles for not having "Jehovah" at those same verses where the KJV has it. Since the truth is consistent and for this KJV-only claim to be considered valid, it would need to be applied consistently. If present English Bibles should have kept the name "Jehovah" at those verses where the KJV had it, should the KJV also have kept the name "Jehovah" at any verses where the pre-1611 English Bibles may have had it?