Many anti-Calvinists look to 1 John 2:2 to disprove the Calvinist assertion that Christ atoned only for the elect. 1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. But is John saying that Christ is the propitiation for the sins of all men everywhere without distinction, or is he using the same language he and other NT writes used to indicate that God saves the Jews and the Gentiles? Look at how John uses the term "whole earth" in Revelation 13:3: And I saw one of his heads as it were wounded to death; and his deadly wound was healed: and all the world wondered after the beast. Does John mean that every individual in the world followed the beast (see v. 8)? And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. No? What, then, does he mean (see verse 7)? . . . all kindreds, and tongues, and nations. Likewise, we read in Revelation 12:9 that Satan deceives the whole world. Again, this clearly doesn't mean every individual in the world because two verses later we read that the saints of God have overcome Satan. Thus, whole world here must mean something other than all people everywhere without exception. Now look at Romans 1:8. First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world. Did everybody in the whole world, without exception, know the members of the church at Rome and did all people everywhere, without exception, talk about their faith? No? Then the term whole world must also have a meaning other than all people everywhere without exception. Now look at what John wrote in John 11:51-52, And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation; And not for that nation only, but that also he should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad. Compare that to what John is saying in 1 John 2:2 (remember the same man wrote both of them and will use the same type of language to describe the same thing) And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. John is saying that Jesus is the propitiation for our sins (the nation of Israel) and also for the sins of the whole world (the children of God that were scattered abroad). Remember, no scripture is of private interpretation but must be compared with all other scriptures dealing with the same subject. When we compare scripture with scripture we see John using the same thought in both verses to describe propitiation not being just for the nation of Israel but for the children of God scattered all over the world.