O.K. here's an old debate but I dont' know if I've ever heard it opened this way: There are some of you that hang tenaciously on to the old cliche "all means all, and that's all there is to it!" So if all means all, is this verse true? And is this verse also true? If all always means all, how can they both be true? If (1) God works all things after the counsel of his own will; and (2) God would have all men to be saved; then (3) salvation is universal. Yes? No? Please try to answer the question or resolve the (seeming) contradiction without using the word "mystery".