In the ongoing debates between KJVOs & Multiversion Users(henceforth referred to as MUs)we're often accused by the Os of attacking the KJV. Well, if PRESENTING THE TRUTH is an attack, just call me a 'soldier'. We're all familiar with the rendering of the Greek word 'pascha' as "Easter" in Acts 4:12. This is a glaring example we point out to the Onlyist who claims the KJV is perfect and inerrant. The chief reason we believe KJVO is wrong is that it completely lacks any evidence, empirical or circumstantial, to support it. But the KJVOs accuse us of the same thing. However, we CAN support OUR claims by SCRIPTURE as well as historical FACT, something the KJVO simply CANNOT do. About Easter: First, Easter as we know it was NOT observed at the time Acts was written, nor at the time of Peter's arrest. There are those who claim Herod was observing the pagan feast of ISHTAR at the time, but Scripture and history debunks this claim. First, Herod was trying to PLEASE the notoriously-rebellious Jewish leadership. Had he been observing a PAGAN feast in their midst, they would,ve complained en mass to Caesar, who would've replaced him. Next, just ask any Jew if the whole time period encompassing the actual Passover meal AND the days of Unleavened Bread is called Passover. Now, let's see some Scripture from the KJV which PROVES that Passover was observed the same way then: Matthew 26:17-"Now the **first day** of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?" Mark 14:12-"And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest **eat the passover**?" We all know the story of the "Last Supper". But what THEN occurred? Jesus was arrested AFTER He had eaten the actual Passover MEAL, on the day UNIVERSALLY observed by the Jews. But, was THAT the end of the observance known then & now as Passover? Read on: John 18:28-"Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might **eat the passover.**" John 19:14-"And it was the **preparation of the passover**, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!" Clearly, the actual Passover meal had been eaten the evening before, and the beginning of the NEXT DAY was at hand for the Jews, as they reckoned the beginning of a new night and day from sunset of the previous day. And the Jews have UNIVERSALLY observed the Passover period ON THE SAME DATES since God instituted it, so Jesus didn't observe the Passover meal a day ahead of the other Jews. Clearly, these Scriptures refer to the Days of Unleavened Bread which follow the Passover feast. These days were and are part of the Passover observance. This note comes about because of the Onlyist claim that the KJV is perfect and inerrant. This is an unfounded claim, while OUR refutation of that claim is sealed by Scripture from the KJV itself. The KJVOs remind us that 'pascha' can mean either Easter or Passover, but WE remind THEM that the CORRECT meaning in a given application is determined by the CONTEXT. And in Acts 12:4, the context clearly indicates PASSOVER. Now, am I saying, "Throw out the KJV"? Absolutely not. The MESSAGE is the same, whether one says 'Easter' or 'passover'. That message is that herod saw it pleased the Jewish leadership when he killed James, so he arrested Peter, but he didn't want to kill him during the Passover, so he kept him in jail, intending to kill him(or let the Jews do with Peter as they wished) after the Passover was done. What I AM saying is that the KJVO claim for the perfection of the KJV is simply wrong, and has been PROVEN wrong right here. Unlike the Onlyists, we MUs can PROVE our claims. (Personally, I don't support EVERY MU claim, but those I DO support, I can PROVE.) C.P.R.