I realize this has been a bone of contention for many. However, I don't think anyone can honestly deny that John 6:37-40 clearly teaches that "ALL" whom the Father gives equals "all" who actually come to Christ as there are NONE LOST that are given or that come. Therefore "of all" given "all" come and NONE are lost. That is 100% out of 100% given come and 100% "of all" none are lost. This being the case, then "all" coming to the Son by the Father must also equal "all" who actually come to the Son by the drawing of the Father, since none that come are lost. Hence, giving and drawing must equally overlap in regard to "of all" who actually come to the Son since none that come are lost thus all who are given must be equally drawn by the Father. Since the incarnated coming of Christ is in response to, a consequence of the Father giving such to the Son (v. 38) then such giving precedes the incarnation or else Christ could never say that his coming was for the purpose to secure all those the Father gave to him. However, that is precisely what he does say in verse 38 as the specific will of the Father that he came down from heaven to fulfill was that he would "LOSE NOTHING" of all that were given to him by the Father. Therefore, since this giving preceded the incarnation, therefore it necessarily had to precede any of us coming to Christ in time and space since the incarnation precede our earthly existence. Moreover, the future tense "shall" come demonstrates coming is the consequence of first being given, just as the coming of Christ to earth is the consequence "of all" first being given to Christ. In other words, Christ did not come to earth in order that they might be given to him by the Father any more than we come to Christ in order that we might be given to him by the Father. Giving is the stated cause for both the coming of Christ to earth and the coming to Christ in faith. Lastly, ALL who come to Christ by drawing of the Father must equal "all" who are given by the Father to come to Christ, since ALL who come NONE shall be lost. If some could come to Christ and be lost then that would contradict verses 37 and 39. So coming is a consequence of both being giving and being drawn by the Father rather than the cause of being giving or being drawn by the Father. The absolute proof of this is that "no man can come to me" EXCEPT the Father first do his work. Thus coming has to be consequential to being first drawn rather than drawing being consequential to first coming. Hence, both giving and drawing "is the work of God" in regard to coming to Christ by faith just as Jesus first states in John 6:29. It is the audience of unbelievers that deny coming to faith is the work of God but they claim it is of their own inherent ability (Jh. 6:30,34). No one disputes that man has inherent faith but rather the issue is does he have inherent ability to come to Christ by faith. Jesus says "NO man can come to me" without the work of God being the EXCEPTION to that universal rule. Moreover, if SOME can be given that do not come then Christ lied in verse 39. Additionally if SOME can be drawn that do not come then Christ lied in verses 63-66 as he gives as the sole reason for remaining in "unbelief" from "the beginning" by "SOME" is that they WERE NEVER DRAWN BY THE FATHER (v. 65). Hence, "ALL" in verse 37 and 39 equal "ALL" in verse 45 which equal "ALL" in John 12:32. Thus "all" is contextually defined as "ALL MEN WITHOUT DISTINCTION of race, class or gender" rather than "ALL MEN WITHOUT EXCEPTION FROM ADAM TO LAST HUMAN BORN." It is the very same "ALL" in ALL cases.