Final Authority before 1611?

Her analogy does not make sense. "kin" does not explain how a "final authority" is chosen, nor why it is replaced. Period.

 

And just where do you, or anyone else, get the authority to make the decision of what is and what is not corrupt? The same place you get that the KJV is perfect?

For your information, most translations now use the Majority text, not W/H.

Same here, sister. Funny, we both mention the Holy Spirit, but I say that He is my final authority, but you say He shows you yours. Someone is wrong, and it ain't me.

In Christ,
Trotter

 

You are the only one belly-aching. I saw no attack at all in Natters extension of the analogy. In fact, Natters really brought out some good points. I guess since they didn't agree with Theology by Michelle, they just HAVE to be wrong, huh?

By elevating one line of man, for whatever reason (be it skin color, size, shape, whatever), you would bring about racism and prejudice. Just like elevating one translation over and above all others brings about the same type of things (arrogance, legalism, prejudice).

In Christ,
Trotter

 

What! No KJVO can show me the perfect bible that 100% agrees with the KJV before 1611! How odd! And I thought that Psalm 12:6-7 by KJVO interpretation would prove that the words of the KJV have always existed perfectly intact.

 

He could if He wanted to do so but so far no KJVO can tell us which Revision/Edition (Cambridge, Oxford, Nelson (1611-1853)) of the KJV is the "perfect" one.

He could make us "perfectly" sinless in the here and now if He wanted to do so.

HankD

 

Probably the Latin Vulgate because the Church of Rome made similar claims for it as do the KJVO saying that it was written in the language of heaven, superior to the Greek and Hebrew.

Now that I think about it, they also committed atrocities upon those who disagreed (especially anabaptists).

Yes, and it also contained the Apocrypha like the KJV First Edition. King James sent you to jail (or should I sat gaol) for 1 year if you complained about it. That's if you were lucky otherwise off with your ears!

yes it's much more than a coincidence, it must have been the Latin Vulgate.

HankD

 

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Her analogy does not make sense. "kin" does not explain how a "final authority" is chosen, nor why it is replaced. Period.
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Yes it does. Church (family) HISTORY.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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And just where do you, or anyone else, get the authority to make the decision of what is and what is not corrupt? The same place you get that the KJV is perfect?
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By the authority of the scriptures we already have, and have had and by the Holy Spirit of truth. This is how we can tell, and the corruptions are EVIDENT.


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For your information, most translations now use the Majority text, not W/H.
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For your information, most versions still use the W/H text, to which is now renamed the Majority Text. It is still the same methods and the same corrupt texts.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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Same here, sister. Funny, we both mention the Holy Spirit, but I say that He is my final authority, but you say He shows you yours. Someone is wrong, and it ain't me.
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How is it that one determines it is the Holy Spirit of truth, if it is not from, or based upon the truth of the scriptures? How can one recieve final authority from a spirit, and determine that that spirit is the Holy Spirit, if not by the words of God?

Romans 10

13. For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
14. How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?
15. And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!
16. But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?
17. So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.
18. But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

Thank you sister, for about 25 years I have been under the impression that the Minority Texts were the basis for W/H.

 

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By elevating one line of man, for whatever reason (be it skin color, size, shape, whatever), you would bring about racism and prejudice. Just like elevating one translation over and above all others brings about the same type of things (arrogance, legalism, prejudice).
--------------------------------------------------

I didn't bring it about, Natters did, and did it unnecessarily. He subtley was implying a nasty thing about Granny, and had nothing whatsoever to do with the analogy, to which is also what you are doing. This is being done mean-spiritedly to attempt to destroy character, and the point, under the guise of a flaw in the analogy. The only flaw is the false accusation and assumption. If you and Natters continue to do this type of thing, I am no longer going to discuss this with you. This is not nice, nor is it the truth, nor is it edifying.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

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He could if He wanted to do so but so far no KJVO can tell us which Revision/Edition (Cambridge, Oxford, Nelson (1611-1853)) of the KJV is the "perfect" one.

He could make us "perfectly" sinless in the here and now if He wanted to do so.

HankD
--------------------------------------------------

We have told you all continually, but you just ignore the answer, and rant that we have never answered it. Maybe if more people payed attention to the context of what people say, rather than focusing upon the non-essentials of the post, one would understand the answer given. None of you have, and I fear none of you can. You are all too caught up in fighting against a man-made false label, rather that looking at the truth of this issue honestly. <judgement of spirituality deleted>

Gal. 1

6. I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:
7. Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.
8. But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
9. As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
10. For do I now persuade men, or God? or do I seek to please men? for if I yet pleased men, I should not be the servant of Christ.
11. But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
12. For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

[ August 20, 2004, 01:02 AM: Message edited by: C4K ]

 

Thank you sister, for about 25 years I have been under the impression that the Minority Texts were the basis for W/H. </font>[/QUOTE]Doing just a little online research michelle. Most of what I am finding equates Majority Text with the Byzantine Text as opposed to the crtical texts. Can you show me please where W/H have been renamed Majority TExt.

 

Well, the W/H text is called, the "NEW TR." That's how I found out.

 

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And what Bible did Paul use as HIS final authority?
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The same scriptures that God has provided for generations, even until this day, to which is provided and evidenced in our Holy Bible, to which is called the KJB.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

I see that my posts are being ignored! Come on KJVOist! Answer my questions!

 

Well, the W/H text is called, the "NEW TR." That's how I found out. </font>[/QUOTE]Now I am really confused

The NEW TR = Majority Text??