Featured Free-will, Lucifer and God

Ez 28:14 “You (Lucifer) were the anointed cherub who covers; I established you; You were on the holy mountain of God; You walked back and forth in the midst of fiery stones. 15 You were perfect in your ways from the day you were created, Till iniquity was found in you."

God states that His creation of this covering cherub, Lucifer, was "the seal of perfection". How then did Lucifer come to have "iniquity" in him since God, in His sovereignty, created him perfect?

 

Apparently that was a blatant attempt in trying to minimize the passage.

Some of the descriptions in Ezekiel 28:11–19 go beyond any mere human king. In no sense could an earthly king claim to be “in Eden” or to be “the anointed cherub who covers” or to be “on the holy mountain of God.” Therefore, most Bible interpreters believe that Ezekiel 28:11–19 is a dual prophecy, comparing the pride of the king of Tyre to the pride of Lucifer turned Satan

The question remains: God states that His creation of this covering cherub, Lucifer, was "the seal of perfection". How then did Lucifer come to have "iniquity" in him since God, in His sovereignty, created him perfect?

 

Oh, so when God said you were "the anointed cherub who covers” and you were ""the seal of perfection" He was addressing an earthly king? Please, look at the [Edited] context[Edited].

 

Where did I make it "God's work of redemption and reconciliation"? Waiting!

 

As already stated, "most Bible interpreters believe that Ezekiel 28:11–19 is a dual prophecy, comparing the pride of the king of Tyre to the pride of Lucifer turned Satan."

Nonetheless, we are privy to some good information on Lucifer here in this passage. Now, can anyone answer my question?

God states that His creation of this covering cherub, Lucifer, was "the seal of perfection". How then did Lucifer come to have "iniquity" in him since God, in His sovereignty, created him perfect?

 

It's only questionable to those Calvinist who oppose anything that hurts their theology. At one time Satan was "perfect" and "sinless". He wasn't named Satan then because that name means "the adversary".

Is 14:12 also directly speaks of Lucifer: “How you are fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning!" NKJV

Why did Lucifer sin and become the adversary?

What is sin? The classic answer is "sin is the transgression of the law" (the moral law). But what is "sin" singular? Sin singular leads to sins plural.

What is sin singular? But before touching on that question what was Satan's sin? He went from dependency upon God to be dependency upon himself. He thought that he was big enough to go it alone. This separation from God caused Lucifer to become bent-to-self. This is the root meaning of iniquity: “crooked” or “bent.”

Lucifer was created by God with only agape love. Therefore he was "the seal of perfection"; he was blameless. But self-dependency caused his agape to become "bent" to himself. In other words it became a u-turn agape or self-love. Therefore the love of self is the root of all our sinning. Hence sin singular is the love of self.

The bigger question is how could a perfect being sin? The answer has to be because God made him with a free-will.

 

How? Yes, it is called "the mystery of iniquity". Why would a sinless being even think opposite of God? The simple answer is free-will, but even then it doesn't make a lot of sense.

 

Let's keep to Lucifer for now....I don't believe Lucifer one day said, "I think I'll rebel against God." Separation from God brings sin (singular). Lucifer began to doubt and question God's Sovereignty, which is basically "without Me you can do nothing". He questioned God's agape love. That produced the slippery slope. We know the rest of the story.

 

Please make this a bit more legible.