Since this matter was brought up in another topic, let's give it its own topic. The issue before us is another member asked why the NIV changed this verse from how it was written in the KJV. Here's Gal. 2:20 from the KJV: "I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me. And from the NIV: "I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me." The main difference is between OF & IN. I would say that the KJV followed the Bishop's Bible in writing "of". However, the older Geneva Bible says "in". I shall paste an earlier message from another topic explaining my view of this matter: Now, I'm NOT saying the KJV is wrong here. Its translators were most likely using of as a function word to indicate the component material, parts, or elements or the contents, I. E. cup of water, bar of gold, etc. But by that same token, in is certainly not incorrect, either. We certainly see this usage in the KJV's Gal. 2:16. I have seen this usage quite often in my reading of older English literature, I. E. "My love is OF my lady", "The king's power is OF his loyal knights". And the GREEK reads 'pistis'(faith) Christos(Christ) with no article or any other word between those two words. In other words, the NIV(and other modern versions) simply updated the language here. That's the answer to the gentleman's question in the other thread.