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Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Baptist4life, Dec 20, 2008.

  1. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Amen, Bro. Ed! Preach it!

    I don't understand how anyone can belong to the "Deny the Word Club" and stil sleep at night.
     
  2. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Yer you very willingly cast doubt on God's word in any translation that isn't one of the KJVs. Hmmm.....

    Then please tell us Ahaziah's age when he became king - was he 22 (2 KIings 8:26) or was he 42 (2 Chronicles 22:2)? He couldn't possibly have been two different ages at the same moment in time.

    Young Christians don't need to be indoctrinated into a "pick your favorite version and deny the rest" mentality. This is exactly what those who follow KJVOism promote.

    God's word (His message to us) IS prerfect. But the KJVO position confuses God's word with a particular set of English words on a page. By the errant KJVO definition of perfection there can only be one perfect word of God. IMHO, the KJVO position does nothing but cast doubt on God's ability to preserve His word as He sees fit and on His wisdom in providing more than one English Bible translation. Thankfully, God is wiser than to cave in to the KJVO position.
     
  3. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    Where was this? I have only been here seven years, so I may have missed it. But I haven't seen this yet.

    Totally incorrect. This is the type of thinking that got you where you are.

    I have never said that the Lord cannot preserve his word in a translation. He can and has. He has done it in many translations.

    Furthermore, I have not said that the Lord cannot preserve his word perfectly. He can. But he has chosen not to for reasons of his own. It is not up to you to try to improve on what God has done.
     
  4. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    That's simple, stilllearning, but it's hidden from you. English is a growing and evolving language. To think that there's a "once-for-all-time" English Bible translation is absolutely absurd. The KJVO position errantly suggests God retired from His ongoing work of preservation in 1611 or whenever the "one true word of God" (Cambridge or Oxford?) KJV was published.
    ]
     
  5. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    God is the inventor of the MV position. By quoting various texts when He walked on earth, Christ set an example for us to follow. However, KJVO followers totally reject the example Christ set for us, turning their backs on God's word in any translation that isn't one of the differing KJVs.
     
  6. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    The TRUE Bible correctors are those who would "correct" any translation that isn't one of the KJVs.

    The REAL attack against the Lord is the denial put forth by KJVOs that God can't preserve His word in as many translations and as many times as He sees fit.
     
  7. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    God HAS preserved His word perfectly, Pastor Larry. His word (His message to us) is the same in the NKJV and the NASB as it is in the KJVs. That's miraculous perfection - all the legitimate Bible translations teach the same doctrines. It's the KJVO definition of perfection that's in error.
     
  8. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Is that your final answer? Um, I think you'd better count again or you're gonna look silly when a realistic estimate is given here (based upon a 'formally' translated "MV").
     
    #68 franklinmonroe, Dec 23, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 23, 2008
  9. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    Oooo, ooo! [visualize upraised hand waving] Pick me, I know this one!

    First, actually there are a few Greek supported words in the "MVs" that are lacking in the KJV. Betcha' can't wait to find out what they are; I may let some one else have that privilege.

    Second, the "MVs" (primarily based upon earlier Greek MSS) have fewer words, which means that it is the KJV text (primarily based upon later Greek MSS) that has added words. The "MVs" chronolgically come first. In other words, the TR Greek text follows almost all the same words as the eclectic Greek text, and then the TR adds some more. For example, it would be very difficult to add notes to piece of music that hasn't been composed yet, wouldn't you agree? That is similar to what you're suggesting: why didn't the earlier MSS add words to the later MSS (that hadn't even been written yet)? Sound ridiculous? It should. Texts tend to 'expand' over time (a fact that can be observed even in secular ancient documents).

    Third, is a question for you: Why is all the alleged 'omitting' of verses isolated to only the New Testament? Hmmm.
     
    #69 franklinmonroe, Dec 23, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 23, 2008
  10. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    That is if you measure it with the KJV. However, since the KJV is not the original, it is wrong to compare modern versions to another version. The best way to find out what should be there is to go to the manuscript evidence. THAT is where you will find what is added or removed. Interestingly enough, the KJV actually has some more verses than what are in the oldest manuscripts. Fortunately what is added is found usually in a parallel text in another book (such as another gospel) and it is not unorthodox teaching, so it can be understood why it was put in the text in error. But that doesn't mean that the KJV is right and the modern versions are wrong.

    No one said that the KJV is not the Word of God. Can you show me where anyone said that?
     
  11. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    Amen, Brother! Preach it!

    The KJVO position always requires all sorts of contortions and twisting - and a total denial of logic. It's impossible to take away from something that doesn't yet exist. That's why it's so easliy shown the later TR manuscripts added to what was already written.
     
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