Hebrews 7 and the priesthood...

Discussion in 'Free-For-All Archives' started by CatholicConvert, May 31, 2003.

  1. CatholicConvert

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    Okay...here we are.

    Heb 7:1 ¶ For this Melchisedec, king of Salem, priest of the most high God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings, and blessed him;

    What do you see in this opening verse?

    Also, are we agreed that what Hebrews is talking about and leading up to is the concept of Christianity and the New Covenant being better than Judiasm and the Old Covenant? May I have your thoughts on that, Bob (and any others).

    Cordially in Christ and the Blessed Virgin,

    Brother Ed
     
  2. Ps104_33

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    Why is the term "priest" conspicuously absent from every single one of Pauls epistles (except Hebrews if you accept Paul as its author)?

    It is found in the gospels but referring to Old Testament Jewish priest. It is found in Acts referring to the same. It is found in I Peter referring to the "priesthood" of all believers as well as Revelation.

    I Peter 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

    1 Peter 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;


    And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

    Revelation 5:10 And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth.

    Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
     
  3. CatholicConvert

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    Psalms --

    Please accept what I say here. I want to stick to the idea of working with Hebrews 7. This is a thread started from a conversation Bob Ryan and I were having elsewhere.

    I would be glad to have you join in....perhaps you have some opening comments on the above verse?

    Brother Ed
     
  4. Ps104_33

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    I'm kinda lost here Ed so I'll stay out of this one.

    [ May 31, 2003, 09:01 PM: Message edited by: Ps104_33 ]
     
  5. BobRyan

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    Hebrews 7 is pointing to the end of the Levitical priesthood (Aaron was a Levite - all the priests and the highpriests selected from among them - were Levites). Hebrews 7 points out that Mechezidek is NOT a Levite and neither is Christ.

    Paul is arguing that the TWO priesthoods are the Levitical priesthood vs the Melchizedek priesthood that is NOT of the Levites at all.

    He argues that Christ is of the Melchizedek priesthood BECAUSE "there is No begining of days and no end of days for that priest - He is an eternal being - ". Not that the historic Melchizedek is superhuman - or not a human, but he becomes a "type of Christ" in that the story about him shows no beginning of days, no end of days and certainly no possibility of being a Levite.

    Judaism is not "another religion" in the eyes of the writer of the book of Hebrews. God is not the author of a "false religion followed by a true religion". The "Bible" the "Scriptures" the "Word of God" as quoted by the book of Hebrews - continues to be "The Old Testament" (as we saw in Hebrews chapter 3). Paul argues in Hebrews 4:1 "WE have had the Gospel preached to US just as THEY also" speaking of Israel in the wilderness for 40 years.

    The point made in Hebrews 7 and 8 is that the Levitical priesthood (regarding ALL priests of the Levitical order) is replaced by another priesthood - the Melchizedek priesthood - which belongs to Christ alone. He is our One High Priest - our One Mediator between God and Man - and we are to "Go boldly to the throne of Grace" under this Melchizedek system of priesthood.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  6. CatholicConvert

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    If this is true, then shouldn't the Scriptures reflect this? I was going back to try to bring all context to bear on this issue and I found this:

    Heb 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

    And this:

    Heb 4:14 Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.

    And this:

    Heb 5:1 ¶ For every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in things pertaining to God, that he may offer both gifts and sacrifices for sins:

    Heb 5:5 So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee.

    6 As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.


    I think that these verses show that it is not the mediatorial and general priesthood which Christ has entered, but the high priesthood, which is both separated and distinct from that priesthood of the Levites.

    You yourself have admitted that Christ is the Great High Priest.

    Look further at Hebrews 5:1. It says that Christ might offer gifts and sacrifices for sins as a high priest, indeed as THE Great High Priest of the New Covenant.

    There is nothing I see which suggests the end or change of the mediatorial priesthood. The whole thrust of what I have seen mentioning Christ's priesthood has to do with His being the high priest of the New Covenant, replacing the high priesthood of the Old Covenant and abolishing it.

    Corresponding with this is the destruction of the veil of the Temple when Christ died, showing the end of the high priesthood of the Jews. Later on in Hebrews, we will see that the true Temple in Heaven, made "without hand", of which the Temple in Jerusalem was but a type and picture (Heb 8:5) now has the true High Priest.

    I don't want to go too long with this, for long posts are hard to answer. Let us discuss this now...that the priesthood which is spoken of regarding Christ is the high priesthood and not an ordinary priesthood among the people.

    Cordially in Christ,

    Brother Ed
     
  7. BobRyan

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    No question about that - I agree that Christ serves as our High Priest in heaven and that the book of Hebrews clearly points that out.

    However the book of Hebrews shows this "in the context" of the Hebrews 7 fact (as noted in the text) that the "Levitical priesthood" is the priesthood from which the Entire system of Levitical priests (both highpriests AND all others derive from the Levitical model)derive their authority. The "contrast" is made in Hebrews 7 between the "Levitical model" (that includes both daily ministry AND the High Priest ministry) - and the Melchizedek model that Christ follows which is "Another" priesthood entirely - where the priest must have "no beginning of days, nor end of days" and where the priest is not required to be of the tribe of Levi or descended from Aaron.

    By Contrasting at the level of the entire Levitical system - not just the high priest segement WITHIN the Aaronic priesthood segment - the text provides no basis for retaining part of the Levitical model - not the daily priests - and not the High Priests.

    Christ is then the "antitype" for the "Melchizedek" Type. Christ is the "reality" where Melchizedek merely foreshadowed Christ symbolically.

    Try this


    Heb 7
    11 Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and NOT be designated according to the order of Aaron?

    12 For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also.
    13 For the one concerning whom these things are spoken belongs to another tribe, from which no one has officiated at the altar.
    14 For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, a tribe with reference to which Moses spoke Nothing concerning priests.
    15 And this is clearer still, if another priest arises according to the likeness of Melchizedek,
    16 who has become such not on the basis of a law of physical requirement, but according to the power of an indestructible life.


    This it not contrasting some PART of the levitical priesthood - but ALL of the Levitical priesthood.

    Christ was crucified on Passover - not "Yom Kippor". As Paul notes "Christ our Passover has been sacrificed". The "shadow" of the animal sacrific "the blood of Which can never take away sin" - is replaced by the blood of Christ.

    It is the end of the ENTIRE sacrificial system. It ends ALL the animal sacrifices of ALL Levitical priests.

    The text does not make the effort to say "the Levitical priesthood and the Aaronic priesthood remain - only the High priests from Among that group are replaced by Christ". Instead the text shows that the entire tribal affiliation with Levi - is done away with and replaced by the Melchizedek priesthood of Christ who alone fulfills the "requirements" as listed

    Hebrews 7 -
    1 For this Melchizedek, king of Salem, priest of the Most High God, who met Abraham as he was returning from the slaughter of the kings and blessed him,
    2 to whom also Abraham apportioned a tenth part of all the spoils, was first of all, by the translation of his name, king of righteousness, and then also king of Salem, which is king of peace.
    3 Without father, without mother, without genealogy, having neither beginning of days nor end of life, but made like the Son of God, he remains a priest perpetually.


    Because of this - Paul argues that by the measure of the old Levitical system - Christ would not be any kind of priest - not highpriest and not the ordinary priest --

    Heb 8
    4 Now if He were on earth, He would not be a priest at all, since there are those who offer the gifts according to the Law;
    5 who serve a copy and shadow of the heavenly
    things


    The entire system of Levitical offerings - is contrasted to the Heavenly system. The Entire priesthood is rejected "Christ would not be any kind of priest AT ALL" on earth according to the Levitical system and the Aaronic priesthood - all of it.

    This contrast is between an earthly "Levitical" model and a heavenly Priesthood where Christ alone "is the One Mediator between God and Man".

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  8. SolaScriptura in 2003

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    One very important point in Hebrews is that Christ is the only priest that can remove sin. The Jewish and the pagan priests then (and the Romish and Eastern priests now) all stood (stand) daily offering the same sacrifices over and over and still could not (and still cannot) remove sin, but Christ with His one sacrifice of Himself on Golgotha was able to remove sin forever and make the comers thereunto perfect.

    (Heb 10:11-14) And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God, from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool. For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.

    (1 Tim 2:5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
     
  9. BobRyan

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    The contrast between the earthly "types" and the "reality that is in Christ" is seen in the Passover - Christ is the One True Lamb of God, in the priesthood - Christ is the One True Mediator between God and man, in the sanctuary - the Heavenly Sanctuary made without hands is THE One True Sanctuary where our highpriest ministers, the Holy and Most Holy Places - the Throne of God is the One True Holy Place and we are to come boldly before the throne of Grace.

    Yom Kuppor on earth is then - merely a shadow of the great day of Atonement "reality" that begins with the "atoning sacrifice" (1John 2:2) of Christ and concludes with the "process" that is the "reality" of that service - performed in the heavenly sanctuary by our One True Mediator between God and man.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  10. CatholicConvert

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    Okay. And that's the whole point. God uses words carefully. Christ is described as our Great High Priest. Why would God do this if His priesthood replaced not only the high priests of earth, but the priesthood in general?

    If Christ's priesthood replaces the high priests, and the mediatorial priesthood by your extension, then why does it not replace the general priesthood of all believers? After all, Jesus Himself is the Son of Man (human being) who is the first believer of the New Testament par excellance, right? Why then would He not be the "believer" for all believers?

    I think the answer is found in a covenantal principle called "hierarchy".

    For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.

    Let me ask you what you feel the above verse means?

    Does after the order of Melchisedec mean after another priesthood other than the Levitical priesthood? Or does it mean of the same kind of priest as Melchisedec?

    Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

    It seems to me that Hebrews 7 is speaking about a change in the order of the priesthood, as coming from the same order as Melchisedek, but not an abolition of the structure of the priesthood itself. I do see a change in the order, but I fail to see that the basic structure is changed, according to these verses.

    Okay, your turn.

    Brother Ed
     
  11. CatholicConvert

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    Bob --

    Sorry, this thought just came to me, but I want to make it a separate post.

    If what you said in your long post regarding the abolition of all priesthood by the ascension of Christ to the priesthood of Heaven is true, then we have a conflict in Scripture:

    1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:

    This is the very same language that God uses in Deut. 19: 6 when He makes covenant with the Children of Israel, the Jews, and establishes His covenant with them. They are priests unto Him.

    Now if Christ's ascension into Heaven abolished all need for priests on earth, then the verse from 1 Peter is a mistake, wouldn't you agree?

    This is why I say that I see the pattern and administration from the Old Covenant continuing into the New Covenant, because I see the concept in 1 Peter.

    Plus, there are those verses in Revelation which speak of the saints as priests. Seems to me that the priesthood of believers is far from abolished.

    Cordially in Christ,

    Brother Ed
     
  12. Ps104_33

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    Maybe this is a good time to reiterate my point, no?

    Why is the term "priest" conspicuously absent from every single one of Pauls epistles (except Hebrews if you accept Paul as its author)?

    It is found in the gospels but referring to Old Testament Jewish priest. It is found in Acts referring to the same. It is found in I Peter referring to the "priesthood" of all believers as well as Revelation.

    I Peter 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

    1 Peter 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;

    And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

    Revelation 5:10 And hast made us unto our God kings and priests: and we shall reign on the earth.

    Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years
     
  13. CatholicConvert

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    The tradition of the Church is that St. Paul is indeed the author of Hebrews.

    I don't quite understand your point. Are you saying that because the word priest does not show up anywhere else that the idea of the priesthood in the New Covenant is without validity?

    As for the appearence of the word "priest" in Hebrews, I think it is because the purpose of the letter is to show the Jews the transition from the Old to the New Covenant. This would necessitate dealing with the priesthood and the objections of the Jews. The other episltes have more to do with issues of irregularities in worship, abuses of the Eucharist, immorality, and other subjects. Hence, they do not need to mention the priesthood.

    Cordially in Christ,

    Brother Ed (PHILLIES SWEEP!! -- YIPPPIE!!)
     
  14. Ps104_33

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    Ed,
    I guess my point is that the priesthood, along with other elements of the Old Testament, like the sacrificial system, ritual, Levitical law, temple etc has served its purpose and passed away.
    There is not anywhere in the New Testament the shadow of an allusion to a Christian priest in the ordinary sense of the word, that is, a man qualified as over against others not qualified for the special function of offering sacrifices, making priestly intercessions or performing any other act which only a priest can perform.

    The Epistle to the Hebrews attributed priesthood and high priesthood to Christ and Him alone. I think the whole arguement of the letter is that a Christian priesthood was unknown to the writer and unallowable. ( personally I do not believe that Paul was its author. That would make an interesting dicussion in itself). Christ is our hight priest and we are priests because we can now go right to God through Christ.

    What do you think was the significance of the renting of the veil of the temple at Jesus' crucifiction?

    BTW I am in the middle of relocating so I havent been keeping up with the Phils lately like I usually do. Keep you eye at the bottom of my posts and watch "Bucks County Pa." change to "Clearwater Fla" [​IMG]
     
  15. CatholicConvert

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    Okay. Fair enough supposition. But if that is true, then why have Jesus as a priest? Remember, He is the Son of Man, that is, he is perfected non-divine humanity (as opposed to Christ, the divine Son of God). In keeping the separation of natures between the Son of Man and the Son of God, we have a human being, a man, acting as priest in the heavenlies. Surely the question must be -- WHY? -- based on your supposition of a priesthood which ends.

    I would have a very hard time with your statement, based on a couple of things:

    First of all, the verse which reminds us that we are all priests. If this is true, then one must ask again -- WHY? To what purpose is our priesthood as believers. I'm sure that you accept the priesthood of believers. If so, for what purpose is that priesthood?

    From the Catholic Encyclopedia I gleaned the following:

    When the Prophet Isaias foresees the entrance of pagans into the Messianic Kingdom, he makes the calling of priests from the heathen (i.e. the non-Jews) a special characteristic of the new Church (Is., lxvi, 21): "And I will take of them to be priests and Levites, saith the Lord". Now this non-Jewish (Christian) priesthood in the future Messianic Church presupposes a permanent sacrifice, namely that "clean oblation", which from the rising of the sun even to the going down is to be offered to the Lord of hosts among the Gentiles (Mal., i, 11). The sacrifice of bread and wine offered by Melchisedech (cf. Gen., xiv, 18 sqq.), the prototype of Christ (cf. Ps. cix, 4; Heb., v, 5 sq.; vii, 1 sqq.), also refers prophetically, not only to the Last Supper, but also to its everlasting repetition in commemoration of the Sacrifice of the Cross (see MASS). Rightly, therefore, does the Council of Trent emphasize the intimate connection between the Sacrifice of the Mass and the priesthood
    There is not anywhere in the New Testament the shadow of an allusion to a Christian priest in the ordinary sense of the word, that is, a man qualified as over against others not qualified for the special function of offering sacrifices, making priestly intercessions or performing any other act which only a priest can perform.


    Very interesting. Seems that we need to remember to study the type/antetype applications between the Old and the New Covenant.

    Then there is the issue of the Sacraments themselves. The Latin word "sacramentum" means "oath." Baptism is an oath by which one
    enters the kingdom of God. For such an entrance into the covenantal kingdom, there must be an authorized representative for each side. The parents represent the child (or if the initiate is an adult, themselves) and the priest represents God.

    Priests are primarily sarcedotal (offering sacrifice) in their office. This then gets back to the question of whether or not we need any further sacrifice (actually, the re-presentation of the one and only and ever eternally existing sacrifice) or if the idea of "forensic justification," making a man "once saved - always saved" and forever cleansed of sin, is true. If the Reformers were correct, then indeed there is no need for a priesthood at all of any kind. The sacrifice of Christ should have, indeed must have, cleansed the universe, and is done, fini, complete.

    But their position simply cannot be maintained by a good study of Romans.

    Well, seeing that what went on behind that veil was YOM KIPPUR, I would say that God was telling the Jewish nation "Youse guys are FINISHED. Period." The veil being rent would speak to the end of YOM KIPPUR, which would be the end of the corporate covenant which was renewed every year inside that veil. And as we study Hebrews 9 and 10, we see why: Christ, our Great High Priest, is in Heaven offering His Blood in eternal YOM KIPPUR for the New Covenant nation -- the Church.

    Cordially in Christ and the Blessed Virgin,

    Brother Ed

    Florida, eh? Gonna watch spring training up close and personal, eh?
     
  16. BobRyan

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    Christ serves in heaven as our Highpriest

    Actually - having Christ serve as our great high priest in heaven - and having the "heavenly" work of the "One Mediator between God and man" replace all the human systems "where many were called to serve because they all died" makes perfect sense and the "contrast" is between the "Levitical model" and the "Heavenly Model" - not between two parts of the Levitcal model.

    Your argument is that you can not be contrasting the heavenly with the Levitical model "IF Christ is our Highpriest". But that just does not work as a solid objection since clearly we can "contrast Levitical model with Heavenly model
    EVEN if Christ is our Highpriest".

    Because (as you pointed out in your second post) the statement about the "Kingdom of Priests" that Peter makes AND that John makes in Rev 1 - is a global universal scope NOT an appeal to a sacred clergy contrasted to a profane laity. This would be a total rejection of the Levitical model - as well.

    BOTH the Melchizedek Heavenly Highpriestly role of Christ AND The "Kingdom of Priests" where everyone is called to stand before God as a priest - stand opposed to the Levitical model and in fact - require its abolition.

    With "everyone as a priest" you can not have a mediator between other Christians and God on earth (as in the case of the Levitical Priesthood ) - rather you can onlyl have the "ONE mediator" as in the case of Christ our Highpriest.

    Yes. The chapter makes an "explicit" contrast between the ENTIRE priesthood that is of the Levitical order - of the tribe of Levi - and that of the Melchizedek priesthood which requires an eternal being "Without beginning of days or end of years".


    Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.


    No because the Law that is "changed" is the Law mentioned in the text. The "law" that requires "A Levite" not someone from the tribe of Judah. In other words - it is the law that deals with the entire Levitical order that has to be changed going all the way to the root of the entire system - the very Tribal affiliation to Levi.

    For this reasong "Christ would not be a priest At ALL" if He were on earth - because that entire model - that entire system - was merely a "shadow" of what was to come.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  17. BobRyan

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    quote:ps104
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
    I guess my point is that the priesthood, along with other elements of the Old Testament, like the sacrificial system, ritual, Levitical law, temple etc has served its purpose and passed away.
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Christ becomes our Highpriest when He enters heaven according to the text - not while He is on earth as "the Lamb of God".

    Christ becomes our highpriest because this is the "true antitype" to which all the Levitcal priesthood "types" point.

    You might as well ask "Why have Christ come as the Lamb of God that take away the sins of the world if the Lamb sacrifice ends?". The very point of the lamb sacrifice was to point to the True Lamb. The very point of the Levitical priesthood was to point to the TRUE priest - the One Mediator between God and man.

    Christ in heaven - is "fully God" in all His actions - the incarnation and His role as "The Son of Man" is not held in a way to annul His also being God. As the God-man He can stand as "the One Mediator" between God and man.

    The "Kingdom of Priests" Rev 1:6 and the Royal Priesthood where EACH member of the church on earth is a priest - precludes the entire concept of the FEW Priests mediating on behalf of the MANY non-priests. That former system is ended.

    EACH one as a priest is fundamental to the New Covenant "They shall not EACH one say to his brother Know the Lord, for ALL shall know Me". Hebrews 8.

    The priests are EACH ONE to become witnesses to the lost world about the spiritual truths of God.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  18. Carson Weber

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    The "Kingdom of Priests" Rev 1:6 and the Royal Priesthood where EACH member of the church on earth is a priest - precludes the entire concept of the FEW Priests mediating on behalf of the MANY non-priests. That former system is ended.

    Actually, before the Golden Calf episode in Genesis 32 when there were no Levitical priests per se, the entire nation of Israel was considered priestly, while simultaneously, the firstborn sons of Israel were consecrated to serve Israel as priests.

    1. Israel's firstborn sons served as priests to Israel.

    2. Israel served as the firstborn son and priest to the other nations.

    At Sinai, all of Israel was laicized, and the Levites were given the priesthood in replacement of the firstborn sons. This was a probationary phase that was not part of God's original plan for Israel.

    In the Church, the prefiguring foretype of Israel is fulfilled. All Christians become firstborn sons in Jesus Christ and are therefore priestly in Christ (in persona Chrisi). And, within the New Israel, there are those who share in the ministerial role of Christ as head (in persona Christi capitis) as the firstborn sons of Israel served Israel, the firstborn son (Cf. Ex 4:22) of the other nations.
     
  19. CatholicConvert

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    Again, you miss the point. Christ is the one mediator of what?

    Heb 8:6 ¶ But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

    He is the mediator of the "better covenant", and if He is our Great High Priest, then His mediatorial work is not that of a personal nature for personal sins. It is of a corporate nature for the continuance of the covenant between God and the corporate nation -- the Church.

    How do we know this? By using the type found in the Old Covenant, the high priesthood of national Israel. They were not involved with personal sins. Their function was of a corporate nature to mediate the corporate covenant between God and national Israel.

    Bob, you keep crossing up the typology here. If God says that Jesus the Christ is our Great High Priest, then that does not mean that Jesus does the work of a dishwasher in Heaven. He does the work of a High Priest, and as Hebrews 8 shows, that mediation is of a covenantal nature, specifically the covenant between God and the corporate nation.

    Kindly put, you keep trying to dodge the obvious and make Jesus' work in Heaven something that it is not.

    Salvation is a corporate issue. It is familial, and those in the family find salvation. Those outside God's family do not. Protestantism introduced the idea of a "personal savior". Such an idea was never known to the Church prior to the Reformation. Salvation was always like this:

    "He who will not have the Church as His mother shall not have God as his Father."

    Everything about the Faith is about family salvation for the adopted children of God.

    Cordially in Christ and the Blessed Virgin,

    Brother Ed

    PS....we should try to get back to the verses and continue to go over them. But this is good, and a good discussion. Thank you.
     
  20. SolaScriptura in 2003

    SolaScriptura in 2003
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    (Heb 10:11-14)
    And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins.

    Not the high priest only, but every priest.

    But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever

    What could not be done by one singular priest, nor by the entire collection of priests was done by this one Man, Christ Jesus.

    sat down at the right hand of God, from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool.

    Whereas these priests stand because they have not accomplished the goal [removal of sins], He sits for he has accomplished it.

    For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.

    He and His sacrifice are sufficient - none other is needed.

    By this is seen the fact that Christ replaces not only the high priest but the regular priest as well, for he did what niether of them could - removed sin.

    Heb 10:19 Therefore, brethren, having boldness to enter the Holiest by the blood of Jesus,

    Whereas formerly, the High Priest alone could enter the Holy of Holies in the temple made with hands, and only once a year at that (not without blood lest he die), Christians (who are not the high priest, for Jesus Himself is) may enter the true Holy of Holies at whatever time they wish and may do so boldly. But, even so, it is still much the same, for just as only the High Priest could enter under the OT, still only the High Priest may enter now - those who are not the High Priest can only enter by virtue of being in the High Priest's body. This verse must be taken in account with (Heb 9:8) "The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing:" - The entrance into the Holiest being Christ Jesus Himself and the blood required for entrance, His blood. If, therefore, all those in Christ's body may enter the Holy of Holies itself through Christ, what need have they of any mediator beside Christ? He is the only mediator because He is the entrance to the Holiest of all!!!!!!!
     

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