To show you I am completely fair in my assessment of the KJVO thingie, I present cases in which the KJVOs are right. I know they're far & few between, but again I tryta be fair. Here's one that I haven't even seen any KJVO bring up... 2 Samuel 24:23, KJV...All these things did Araunah, as a king, give unto the king. And Araunah said unto the king, The LORD thy God accept thee. Most MVs read as does the NIV:"O king, Araunah gives all this to the king." They do not say that Araunah was also a king, though subservient to David. The Hebrew has the word 'melek, which means 'king' before 'Araunah' in the passage. A rabbi told me the literal reading would be "Araunah king gave to the king...". Besides, the word 'araunah' means 'lord' in the Hittite language most likely used by the Jebusites. It's perfectly natural that David, guided by God's wisdom, would allow a king of the Jebusites, who was totally subservient to David, to rule them to keep rebellion from fomenting.(Chronicles gives his name as Ornan, which, in Hebrew, is 'arnn', which means 'strong'. I have no doubt that Araunah was a ruler of the Jebusites, but a loyal vassal of David's. He prolly also worshipped God, as it's unlikely that God woulda chosen a place recently owned by a heathen to become His holiest place on the planet. Anyway, could some people here who are proficient with Hebrew tell me if I'm right about this?