I have a question concerning a statement Dr. Robert Young made in his out-of-print book "Hints to Bible Interpretation" "in the original Hebrew, the verb is in the permissive rather than the causative sense. Actually, it should have been translated something like this: "The Lord will allow you to be smitten... The Lord will allow these plagues to be brought upon you . . . " He wrote that a hebrew verb could be translated in a "causative" form ("God did it") and in a "permissive" form (God allowed it). Is that the case? Or is it just a theory?