The passage in question: "Truly, these times of ignorance God overlooked, but now commands all men everywhere to repent, because He has appointed a day on which He will judge the world in righteousness by the Man whom He has ordained. He has given assurance of this to all by raising Him from the dead." How can God "command", that "all men everywhere repent"? Would not such a "command" require that God has made it indeed possible for "all men everywhere" to have been atoned for in the death of Jesus Christ? To say that this refers to the "elect", is nonsense. For, why would God need to "command" that the "elect" repent, as there is no doubt that if they were "elect" in the first place, they would gladly repent.Also, it is clear that the "all men everywhere" are the same as "the world", used in the same verse. It should be noted, that the Greek for "world" is NOT "kosmos", which the Calvinist's are all to fond of twisting its meaning to refer to the "elect", as they do in John 3:16; but rather, it is the Greek "oikoumene", which, according to the Greek Lexicon by Ardnt and Gingrich, means: " world in the sense of its inhabitants, human-kind Ac 17:31" (page 564) I say again, it is impossible for God to command that the whole of "human-kind" repents, if indeed Jesus only died for the "elect" Surley, once again the Bible shatters the myth of "Limited Atonement"