How clear must our principle be spelled out in Scripture to justify us preaching it? For example, the Church of Christ preach against any music in the worship service. They claim they have biblical basis for this. I say they do not because their principle is far too many steps removed from clear teaching in Scripture on the matter. The Amish are against modern technology. I don't think their arguments for this belief have any less biblical basis than the arguments of those who condemn Contemporary Christian Music and pants on women and KJVO. God was silent on NT worship music. Therefore, Church of Christ should be. God was silent on the idea of worldliness being linked to technology. Therefore the Amish should be. And God is silent on the preservation of any particular Bible version above all others, silent on types of music being intrinsically good or evil, silent on most of the dress standards preached from IFB and UPC pulpits- so shouldn't they be silent where God is silent??? Wouldn't being silent where God is silent keep down on a tremendous amount of confusion within and without the body of Christ concerning the Kingdom of God? Is it dangerous to speak for God, even thinking you have Bible for it, where God has not spoken? Shouldn't we err on the side of silence where God has not clearly spoken?