Herb Evans posted: "The KJB superiority over these versions is self evident." Do such statements claim or imply that the KJV is completely superior at every rendering or do they only suggest that the KJV is overall superior to any other English translation? Since a translation that is superior overall could still have some poor renderings that are less accurate and even some translating errors, it is likely that superiority of every rendering of every verse is being implied. Is there clear evidence to support a claim that the KJV is superior in every rendering of every verse to any other English translation? The KJV-only claims of KJV superiority over all other English translations seems to give the KJV-only view the burden of proof to show that each and every rendering of the KJV is superior and more accurate than any rendering of other English translations. Attempting to claim that a KJV rendering is possible or that the KJV rendering is not a proven error would not be valid evidence to support the KJV-only claim of superiority.