Genesis 22:1 (AV) And it came to pass after these things, that God did tempt Abraham, and said unto him, Abraham: and he said, Behold, here I am. James 1:13 (AV) Let no man say when he is tempted, 'I am tempted of God': for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth He any man. In James 1:13, the English word "tempteth" comes from the Greek word peirazo (G3985). In Genesis 22:1, in the Greek Septuagint (LXX), this exact root (G3985) is used for "God did tempt Abraham". (The specific conjugation is epeirase.) (In Genesis 22:1, in the Hebrew Masoretic Text (MT), the English word "tempt" comes from the Hebrew word nacah (H5254). In the LXX, the Hebrew nacah is generally translated by the Greek peirazo (G3985).) Thus, it is quite clear that the exact same (root) word is used in Genesis 22:1 and James 1:13. Yet James the Just, first Bishop of Jerusalem and Head of the early Church, says that God does not do what the OT says God did do. ???