KJV-only author Timothy Morton claimed that archaic words should be left in the text. Morton claimed: "If these words [referring to archaic words] are changed in the text then accuracy must be sacrificed, and this would be a terrible mistake" (WHICH TRANSLATION SHOULD YOU TRUST, P. 37). KJV-only author Samuel Gipp wrote that "we should leave the archaic word in the text" (ANSWER BOOK, p. 13). Did the KJV translators update any archaic words in the earlier English Bibles? Did the KJV translators sacrifice accuracy if they updated archaic words? Should all the archaic words of the earlier English Bibles have been left in the text?