The rendering of this verse is materially different in the NIV and HCSB from its rendering in the KJV, RSV and NASB. The phrase in question is highlighted and I have no idea which is a correct rendering. However, either the first three are right and the last two are wrong or the first three are wrong and the last two are right. Why this difference in translation? Could it be a difference in the manuscripts used in the translations, or the theological views or the translator(s)? OK, Greek scholars, I'm waiting to read your comments.