On a closed thread, this was posted by AJ and I didn't get to respond before the thread was closed. I hope there is no name calling here, or the thread will get shut down (as happened on the other thread). No, they don't. The reason this bothers me is because it's a false accusation. What you are seeing makes you think this, but this could only be if someone was translating one version from another and changing it. They are not doing this. They are translating from Hebrew and Greek. The manuscripts used for the KJV are a later set of manuscripts but discovered earlier. The ms for most MVs were discovered later (after the KJV was translated) but are earlier manuscripts. IOW, there are 2 sets of manuscripts. Also, sometimes it is not clear in the Greek whether the word is referring to Jesus or God because it is not specified in the passage. AJ, please give a couple of examples and let us see how we can iron this out in a reasonable way. I'm sure some more learned on this can add to this. Since you made this accusation, give us a passage as it is in the KJV and in a MV where you see God used instead of Jesus.