This passage is really causing debate in my mind. For those of you actively involved in defending the Trinity, such a scripture makes it rather hard. Here is how it is translated|: 18(A)No one has seen God at any time; (B)the only begotten God who is (C)in the bosom of the Father, (D)He has explained Him. NASB 18No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. KJV 18(A) No one has ever seen God;(B) the only God,[a] who is at the Father’s side,(C) he has made him known. ESV 18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,[a] who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him. NKJV 18 No one has ever seen God. [a] The One and Only (A) Son — the One who is at the Father's (B) side [c] — He has revealed Him. (C) HCSB Yes, I know about all the other passages that contain reference to deity, but such a passage in the critical text, makes it that much harder to defend the trininty. For instance, there are no indefinite articles in Koine Greek, yet we add one in Acts to refer to paul as, "a god". |JW's will then state, "hey, why can't we add one in the, "word was a god" then? As one can see, NKJV, and KJV make this distinction much clearer. I also find it interesting how the HCSB makes it clear, yet it is based upon the Alexandrian text. I guess we can see the Baptist bias? Should I lean more to the TR???????? Thanks for input!!!