64 But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him. 65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father. Any reader, without bias, who was completely objective would read and understand verse 65 as Christ's explanation for the unbelief of those in verse 64 - it is just that obvious and simple. Verse 65 must be understood to explain unbelief in verse 64 because Christ said, "therefore said I unto you, that no man CAN COME UNTO ME" and unbelief is not coming to Christ in faith. The only reason that our Arminian friends will not treat these two verses objectively for what they obviously and clearly state is because it would contradict their interpretation of John 6:44-45 and 12:32 where they demand all men without exception are drawn to Christ by the Father and not all drawn come. It would prove that the Father does not draw all men without exception as verse 65 explicitly d4 denies those in verse 64 had been drawn to Christ by the Father. Like many others, they were drawn to Christ by their own selfish reasons (food, miracles, power, etc.) but were never drawn in the sense described in John 6:44-45 as that is the obvious and clear application of John 6:65 to the obvious and clearly repeated stated problem of unbelief in verse 64. The truth is that "all" in John 12:32 is the same "all" in John 6:45a which is the very same "all" in John 6:37-39 as the very same conclusion in John 6:39b is the very same conclusion drawn in John 6:44b demonstrating the very same "all" are in view. But, what does Biblical evidence have do with how people interpret scripture??????