Just "WHO" does Christ save?

Then the scripture is incorrect as given.
John 1:29

The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

 

The scripture never says He died for everyone's sins. It says;

John 1:29
The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

 

FAL,

Did Christ take away the sin of the world?

If so, how is anyone not saved, for there is no sin?

If not, how is anyone saved, for the sin was not taken away?

Perhaps John the Baptist was incorrect?

 

Define from the Bible NT usage the terms "All/World!"

 

Did Christ take away the sin of the world?
Yes according to scripture He did.


If so, how is anyone not saved, for there is no sin?
Who said no one has never been saved?


If not, how is anyone saved, for the sin was not taken away?
I am not understanding the question.


Perhaps John the Baptist was incorrect?
If you want to believe that then that is your business. A lot of people today question the bible so you are not alone.

 

Depending on the passage "all" can mean everyone related to the subject, or everyone who has ever been.

The word "world" can mean either the earth/planet or all that is represented with the planet including humans and even to the universe depending on which Greek word is used and the context.

 

JUST in regards to the area of salvation!

 

This question is important because, if one accepts what you posted as meaning that by the death on the cross Christ took "away all sin,"(as you posted John the Baptizer declared), then there is no more sin. No one can commit nor has committed sin no matter what condition they live their life. That would include all of God's original creation which taken to the logical conclusion means that even Satan and the fallen angels have no sin for Christ took away all sin. The commandments of God are of no value for Christ took away all sin.

However, if He did not "take away sin," then all still remain in sin and the next question needs answered.

Either Christ took away all sin as you posted, or He did not.

If He did, you must go back to the previous question's dilemma.

If He did not take away all sin then you need to reconcile your posting of John the Baptizer's statement and clearly state how one can be saved.

I am not questioning the Bible. I am questioning your view and how it applies to the verse you posted.

 

You are a little confused. I did not write the bible. I simply posted the scripture. If you want to believe it the way you stated that is your business, but keep in mind date rape as that is how many approach the word of God. I simply believe what it says. If you have a question feel free to ask it.

 

I did ask questions.

You didn't answer them.

Rather, you avoided them.

 

I went back and looked and I still see no questions. There is not a single question mark in what you said. Everything you stated is an opinion with no question.

 

Let me review.

I first asked four questions.

Your original reply and questions indicating clarification needed.

I replied giving clarification by presenting the questions needing clarification as statement of a dilemma so that you could focus on the problem of your post.

You responded that I was "confused." You even used a criminal offense in which you (by repeating when asked to not use it) seem obsessed to use. Such would bring a question to a reader of perhaps your own struggle in this area of your life. It is not unusual for a person who is struggling to contain a problem with a sin to refer to that area in writing and preaching/teaching. That is one reason the Scriptures warn the believer(s) to be careful in restoration less they find them self caught up in the very sin from which they are attempting to restore the erring believer.

I again urged you to respond to the questions, thinking that you were skilled to understand the clarification and address the original questions in light of the clarification.

Apparently I was wrong in that assumption of your ability, for you posted the following.

FAL,

You are left with the following choices:

Perhaps you will ignore my original questions with the noted clarification you asked.

Perhaps you will answer the questions by addressing how you resolve the dilemma.

Perhaps you will dwell in the land of avoidance by deflection or blaming my "confusion" and claiming that your answer was given.

Perhaps you don't know how to resolve the dilemma your post created and want to remain silent in hope that it will all go away.

Perhaps you may feel a sense of vulnerability in the questions, the clarification, the besetting sin statement, and the confrontation(s).

Perhaps you, rather than using debate skills that would edify the believers, will determine to leave the playground of the BB.

The decision is yours.

I would that you would engage in resolving the questions with the clarifications given which you asked for, and demonstrate how you balance Scripture with Scripture in determining principled doctrine. This could then be an edification process for any reader.

 

2 biblical ways to answer that question!

Either died on behalf/for the sins of His peoples, the ones that God the father had elected to give Him from out of sinful humanity, those chosen by the father to be found "In Him"
OR
jesus death on the Cross was indeed payment enough to atone for/copver the Sins of all peoples, as he was God dying in our stead, but ONLY those whom the Father elected to receive Jesus and get saved wouls have that atonemet effectuaslly applied unto their behalf!

Jesus did NOT die for all in the sense that all might come unto Him and receive its benefits!