Peter Ruckman wrote: "I believe the King James Bible is the word of God because of the preeminent place it gives the Lord Jesus Christ" (WHY I BELIEVE THE KJV IS THE WORD OF GOD, p.22). Many KJV-only advocates claim that the KJV honor Jesus Christ and His deity more than other translations. Is this claim actually true at every verse that may relate to His deity? Consider John 1:14 as one possible example. At John 1:14 (And the Word was made flesh), Spiros Zodhiates noted that the KJV "has definitely mistranslated the Greek verb 'egeneto'" (WAS CHRIST GOD, p. 65). Zodhiates contended that the KJV rendering could "give rise to the serious misconception that Jesus Christ was subordinate in His nature and essence to someone else, and therefore He would not be, He could not be, God co-equal with the Father" (p. 65). Zodhiates suggested that the correct rendering would be "the Word became flesh." A. T. Robertson also agreed that the phrase should be translated "the Word became flesh" (WORD PICTURES, V, pp. 5, 12). The 1535 Coverdale's Bible and 1538 Coverdale's Latin-English N. T. have this rendering "the Word became flesh" while the Great Bible and the Bishops' Bible have a similar rendering "the same Word became flesh." The NKJV, MKJV, Green's Literal Translation, Berry's Interlinear, Majority Text Interlinear, and some other English translations also have "the Word became flesh." Is the KJV's rendering at John 1:14 more accurate and better than the rendering of all other English Bibles at this verse?