KJV leaves words of God out of it's version.

Heb 1:6, "And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, and let all the angels of God worship him.

QUESTION: Where did God say, "and let all the angels of God worship him?"

ANSWER: Deut. 32:43
Look it up in a KJV.
What it's not there?
Oh, that's right, the KJV uses the Masoretic text.
It is only found in the LXX, or the Dead Sea Scrolls.

Now look up both passages in a NIV.
Read the footnotes.
There, you learned something.

The LXX and the DSS, both say in Deut. "Rejoice o nations, with his people and let all the angels worship him for he will avenge the blood of his servents."

The KJV deleted this phrase.
What? Is the KJV taking away from the Word of God?
You may say, "but it shouldn't have been there, that they are not God's words."
WEll, in that case you disagree with the Writer of Hebrews when he says that God said it!

The phrase according to the Hebrew's Writer is part of God's word.

Sooooo, The KJV takes away a part of God's words.

This is proof that the writer of Hebrews considered other texts besides the Massoretic text to be God's words. (The LXX, Dead Sea Scrlls, or something else?)

BTW the NLT actually includes the phrase in the text of Deut. 32:43. Way to go NLT, you actually are better than the KJV in this verse.

 

"He may have had Deut. 32:43 in mind, but the passage which he was actually citing was Psalm 97:7, which is found both in the Hebrew Old Testament and in the Septuagint and which reads (in the Septuagint), worship Him all ye His angels."

OK, He is still "quoting" from the Septuagent insted of the underlying text of the KJV.
In the KJV Ps. 97:7 says

Psalm 97
7 Confounded be all they that serve graven images, that boast themselves of idols: worship him, all ye gods.

So if he quoted from the LXX (as you admit is closer to the quote than the Massoretic) then is the LXX the word of God? After all the writer says that God said it.
And are you equating "gods" in the KJV OT with angels? Hebrews says "angels" not "gods". To make an angel a god sounds like new age to me.

Ok, Ok, I'm being sarcastic, don't hang me.
But seriously, does someone know if the Hebrew word for "gods" and "angels" is the same?
If so jump in and show me.

 

That's the point I'm trying to make. since the writer of Hebrews was using Scripture to prove his point, then why is it missing in the MT? Unless he used other texts. Like it or not even the KJV translators called the LXX "the word of God."

 

I have another question along these lines. In the book of Jude where Jude quotes from the book of Enoch, is it possible for the KJVOs to argue that God has spoken to others outside of scripture (the canon) and that may be an excuse for using the LXX phrase?

 

Is this the same principle that says there are lies in the Bible? Like the Serpent's lies in the Garden. The Bible truthfully records lies that others tell.

BTW, Thanks for the welcome back, Roby, but I'm not fully back yet. I just have 10 minutes access on the internet/ day at the Ronald Mcdonald House here in Cleveland. ( A great charity if you're looking to donate!)