From another thread, Baptist4Life said: "How about dealing with what I posted. You have two DIFFERENT manuscripts that versions are translated from.......they DIFFER............some have verses.............some do not.............Scripture was inspired by the Holy Spirit.............so those verses either NEED to be in there, or they are not supposed to be in there. You can not have it both ways! One is RIGHT, the other is WRONG! That's LOGIC. I see no problem with using it. Why do you?" Why can't both be right? In the case of doubtful verses, what's wrong with footnoting them in like manner as both the ESV and KJV do? Why do we put so much of a premium on 'logic' and try to twist God's Word to fit our understanding when it is spiritually discerned? For some reason, God in all of His infinite wisdom allowed the various disagreeing mss to continue to the present day. And there has been no proof that any Bible that is translated from any family of mss has lead anyone to false doctrine (with the caveat, of course, regarding those which were translated with deception in mind, such as the CWT and NWT.) Even the various editions of translations do not all agree word-for-word, so logically speaking- since they differ they cannot all be God's Word, can they??