At Jesus's baptism, a voice from heaven said something to Jesus. and the Holy Spirit descended on him in the form of a dove. And a voice from heaven said, "You are my Son; in you I am well pleased." (Luke 3:22) The cross-reference is to Psalm 2:7, which says He said to me, "You are my Son; today I have become your Father. Obviously, the text is similar - similar enough that it's cross-referenced. Yet the second part of the verse is different ("today I have become your Father" has become "in you I am well pleased.") There is a footnote to Luke 3:22, at least in some translations, noting that "3:22 Some manuscripts read and today I have become your Father." There is scriptural evidence in favor of the footnote. In Hebrews, Paul is explaining to skeptics that Jesus is greater than the angels. At one point, he states, "For to which of the angels did He ever say: 'You are My Son, Today I have begotten You?'" (Heb 1:5). The implication is clear - somewhere, in a source that the readers of Hebrews would be familiar with, God the Father says to Jesus the wording of Psalm 2:7. The logical conclusion seems to be that the wording in the footnote was originally the main text. (1) What manuscripts include the footnoted text? (2) Is the footnoted text the original text? (3) If not, how do you explain Hebrews 1:5?