The Masoretic Text has the same status for some as the Textus Receptus. Both are believed to be the preserved Word of God. Could someone explain the following to me. In Romans 3:10-13, the Apostle Paul quotes Psalm 14:1-3. But when I look up Psalm 14:1-3 in the KJV and MT, I find that it is nothing like what Paul quotes in Romans 3:10-13. Imagine my surprise when I find that it is a direct quote from the LXX. Paul says he is quoting Scripture, but its not the MT he's quoting from! What does this mean? Is the LXX a more faithful copy of the Hebrew? Is the MT a faulty text? Is it a corrupted text? When the Dead Sea Scrolls were discovered, an ancient copy of Jeremiah was found that conforms to the LXX and not to the MT. There are major difference between the Jeremiah of the LXX and the Jeremiah of the MT. Which is correct? If the NT writers quote from the LXX and not from the MT, why do our English translations follow the MT and not the LXX? Did the MT even exist in the first century?