NKJV question.

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by Brother James, Jan 22, 2006.

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  1. Brother James

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    Why did the translators of the NKJV translate Sheol and Hades as Hell in some places and not in others? When reading in my NKJV I've noticed it's about a 50/50 mix it seems.
     
  2. Askjo

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    Pastor David F. Reagan quoted:
    Click here: The Facts About the NKJV
     
  3. Orvie

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    Click here: The Facts About the NKJV </font>[/QUOTE]:rolleyes: Is this a new form of "Reagonomics"? :eek: To say the NKJV denies Hell is somewhat stooopid. That rationale could be applied to the KJV which denies the Holy Spirit is a person, thus lining up with the "Jehovah's" Witnesses Theology in Romans 8:16 while calling Him an "it"! Of course the KJV does not teach this, but the point I'm trying to make is, you gotta dig beyond the receptor language and attempt to understand what the intentions of the original writer. At the same time, although the NKJV (IMHO) improves upon it's older counterpart, in some cases the translators probably shouldn't have transliterated Sheol and Hades, but translated, but alas, I don't know too much about Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. (and my English ain't too hot either :eek: )
     
  4. robycop3

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    Sorry, Askjo, Reagan's stuff is opinion, not backed by FACT.

    Now, why did the NKJV translate hades as hades mosta the time? Because it's different from tartarus or gehenna. Gehenna, the lake of fire, IS hell. Just calling all of'em hell is not the best rendering, as , while none of'em are very pleasant places, all are DIFFERENT places.
     
  5. Orvie

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    Thou hittest the nail on that thar head. [​IMG]
     
  6. Askjo

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    Don't you know what "it" means? A dictionary defines "it" as a thing or an animal or a person.
     
  7. Askjo

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    Click here: Hell or Hades
     
  8. Mexdeaf

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    Don't you know what "it" means? A dictionary defines "it" as a thing or an animal or a person. </font>[/QUOTE]Only INFORMALLY as 'an emphatic predicate pronoun referring to the person, thing, situation, etc. which is considered ultimate, final, or perfect [zero hour is here; this is it]' (Webster's New World Dictionary, 1984)
     
  9. Askjo

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    Will K. quoted:
    Click here: The definition of "it" [​IMG]
     
  10. natters

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    And yet, if the KJV had "him self" and another had "it self", we'd hear no end of the claims of blasphemy and heresy from the KJVOs. :rolleyes:
     
  11. TCassidy

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    Anybody who can read Greek at all knows that the pronoun referring to the Holy Spirit is neuter in Greek. All the KJV translators did was preserved the gender of the word God inspired. If you have a problem with "it" take it up with God. He inspired it in the neuter gender.
     
  12. NaasPreacher (C4K)

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    This thread is not off to a good start folks. Lets discuss the question in the OP without references to "hell denying" or "KJVOs".

    We are also off topic already - the OP had nothing to do with the "he" or "it" for the Holy Spirit.

    This thread is subject to immediate closure if these kind of comments continue.
     
  13. DesiderioDomini

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    Perhaps if the OP would give an example of one instance where he feels they should have used a different word, we could stay on topic better.

    I dont think any translation, KJV/NIV/NASB or any other, translates the same word the same way 100% of the time. Perhaps Young's Literal, but I bet there are exceptions there too. It is simply because the 2 languages do not match up perfectly.

    Remember this, you cannot even literally translate "I am sick" into spanish. If you translated it back, you would get "I have sick", which makes little sense.

    Spanish and English are much closer than English and Greek/Hebrew
     
  14. Keith M

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    Back to the original question:

    The only guess I can hazard is that this reflects the preferences of whatever committee member was translating a particular section of the Bible. Brother James, did you notice a trend for one book of the Bible to use one word and another book to use another word?

    BTW, Askjo, of the three articles you linked in this thread, not a single one did I read. Each of the three articles, if posted here at BB, would have had the thread shut down already as they are merely attacks on any BV that is not the KJV. If you would post links to articles that are credible, then maybe people would take the time to read the articles. The three articles you referenced have little or nothing to do with the OP, or they handle the question in a very biased and pre-determined manner. All of the three articles are seriously lacking in credibility.
     
  15. Brother James

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    The only guess I can hazard is that this reflects the preferences of whatever committee member was translating a particular section of the Bible. Brother James, did you notice a trend for one book of the Bible to use one word and another book to use another word?

    BTW, Askjo, of the three articles you linked in this thread, not a single one did I read. Each of the three articles, if posted here at BB, would have had the thread shut down already as they are merely attacks on any BV that is not the KJV. If you would post links to articles that are credible, then maybe people would take the time to read the articles. The three articles you referenced have little or nothing to do with the OP, or they handle the question in a very biased and pre-determined manner. All of the three articles are seriously lacking in credibility.
    </font>[/QUOTE]I haven't noticed if it's more in one book or another brother. I just wondered about thier reasoning in the matter.
    I do hope the mod does not close this thread. I have been a KJV only man for about 20 years. Here recently though I have began to see some problems with the position. I do think(IMO) the the recieved text is the best according to my study which is why I've been investigating the NKJV. I do not believe anymore that all other BV's are part of a conspiracy to overthrow the Word of God. I have been reading the Geneva Bible for some time now as well. Overall, I have been enjoying the NKJV. I just wonder why they left some of these passages untranslated.
     
  16. Keith M

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    Brother James, your comments are encouraging! Keep reading your Bible, and may no one condemn you for your version selection!
     
  17. Mexdeaf

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    Doc, I am an idiot, did not even look at the Greek, got hung up on English def's. Thanks for clearing that up.
     
  18. Phillip

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    If this turns into a KJV argument, I will close it so fast you will get whiplash..... :mad:
     
  19. Anti-Alexandrian

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    If you didn't read the articles,then how can you make the statement they are not credible??
     
  20. Brother James

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    I looked at them. The problem for me he doesn't deal with any of the problems in translation of the KJV as well. I share his concern about corruption possibly in any translation. However, the KJV is not the original manuscripts. Please do not get this thread closed by trying to start some silly argument about this issue.
     
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